UPSC Editorials Quiz : 26 August 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With regard to the differences between soaps and detergents, consider the following statements: Statement I: Soaps are biodegradable and generally considered more environmentally friendly than some synthetic detergents. Statement II: The hydrocarbon chains in soaps are derived from natural fats and oils, which can be easily broken down by microorganisms. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Soaps are generally biodegradable, meaning they can be broken down into simpler substances by microorganisms in the environment. This makes them a more eco-friendly option compared to certain types of synthetic detergents, particularly those that contain non-biodegradable surfactants or phosphates, which can cause water pollution and eutrophication. Statement II is correct. It provides the correct scientific reason for the biodegradability of soaps. The fatty acid chains in soap molecules are derived from natural plant or animal sources. These straight hydrocarbon chains are easily metabolized by bacteria and other microorganisms present in sewage treatment plants and natural water bodies. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Soaps are generally biodegradable, meaning they can be broken down into simpler substances by microorganisms in the environment. This makes them a more eco-friendly option compared to certain types of synthetic detergents, particularly those that contain non-biodegradable surfactants or phosphates, which can cause water pollution and eutrophication. Statement II is correct. It provides the correct scientific reason for the biodegradability of soaps. The fatty acid chains in soap molecules are derived from natural plant or animal sources. These straight hydrocarbon chains are easily metabolized by bacteria and other microorganisms present in sewage treatment plants and natural water bodies.

#### 1. Question

With regard to the differences between soaps and detergents, consider the following statements:

Statement I: Soaps are biodegradable and generally considered more environmentally friendly than some synthetic detergents.

Statement II: The hydrocarbon chains in soaps are derived from natural fats and oils, which can be easily broken down by microorganisms.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Soaps are generally biodegradable, meaning they can be broken down into simpler substances by microorganisms in the environment. This makes them a more eco-friendly option compared to certain types of synthetic detergents, particularly those that contain non-biodegradable surfactants or phosphates, which can cause water pollution and eutrophication.

• Statement II is correct. It provides the correct scientific reason for the biodegradability of soaps. The fatty acid chains in soap molecules are derived from natural plant or animal sources. These straight hydrocarbon chains are easily metabolized by bacteria and other microorganisms present in sewage treatment plants and natural water bodies.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about Orangutans: They are primarily arboreal, spending most of their lives in trees. Orangutans are known to use tools in their natural habitat. The name ‘Orangutan’ is derived from a Malay phrase meaning ‘person of the forest’. They are found in the tropical rainforests of Borneo, Sumatra, and New Guinea. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Orangutans have an arboreal lifestyle, which is evident from their long arms adapted for swinging through the forest canopy. Statement 2 is correct. Orangutans are intelligent primates and have been observed using tools, such as sticks to extract insects from tree bark or honey from beehives. Statement 3 is correct. The name ‘Orangutan’ comes from the Malay words ‘Orang‘ (person) and ‘Hutan‘ (forest), which aptly describes their close relationship with their forest habitat. Statement 4 is incorrect. The habitat of orangutans is restricted to the islands of Borneo and Sumatra in Southeast Asia. They are not found in New Guinea. Borneo is shared by Indonesia, Malaysia, and Brunei, while Sumatra is part of Indonesia. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Orangutans have an arboreal lifestyle, which is evident from their long arms adapted for swinging through the forest canopy. Statement 2 is correct. Orangutans are intelligent primates and have been observed using tools, such as sticks to extract insects from tree bark or honey from beehives. Statement 3 is correct. The name ‘Orangutan’ comes from the Malay words ‘Orang‘ (person) and ‘Hutan‘ (forest), which aptly describes their close relationship with their forest habitat. Statement 4 is incorrect. The habitat of orangutans is restricted to the islands of Borneo and Sumatra in Southeast Asia. They are not found in New Guinea. Borneo is shared by Indonesia, Malaysia, and Brunei, while Sumatra is part of Indonesia.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Orangutans:

• They are primarily arboreal, spending most of their lives in trees.

• Orangutans are known to use tools in their natural habitat.

• The name ‘Orangutan’ is derived from a Malay phrase meaning ‘person of the forest’.

• They are found in the tropical rainforests of Borneo, Sumatra, and New Guinea.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Orangutans have an arboreal lifestyle, which is evident from their long arms adapted for swinging through the forest canopy.

• Statement 2 is correct. Orangutans are intelligent primates and have been observed using tools, such as sticks to extract insects from tree bark or honey from beehives.

• Statement 3 is correct. The name ‘Orangutan’ comes from the Malay words ‘Orang‘ (person) and ‘Hutan‘ (forest), which aptly describes their close relationship with their forest habitat.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The habitat of orangutans is restricted to the islands of Borneo and Sumatra in Southeast Asia. They are not found in New Guinea. Borneo is shared by Indonesia, Malaysia, and Brunei, while Sumatra is part of Indonesia.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Orangutans have an arboreal lifestyle, which is evident from their long arms adapted for swinging through the forest canopy.

• Statement 2 is correct. Orangutans are intelligent primates and have been observed using tools, such as sticks to extract insects from tree bark or honey from beehives.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to Rubella and its elimination, consider the following statements: A country is declared free of rubella when there is no evidence of endemic transmission of the rubella virus for a period of at least 12 months. India has already achieved its target of eliminating measles and rubella. Many people infected with the rubella virus are asymptomatic, which makes surveillance and control of the disease challenging. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target. Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target. Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Rubella and its elimination, consider the following statements:

• A country is declared free of rubella when there is no evidence of endemic transmission of the rubella virus for a period of at least 12 months.

• India has already achieved its target of eliminating measles and rubella.

• Many people infected with the rubella virus are asymptomatic, which makes surveillance and control of the disease challenging.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target.

Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Regarding the Saltwater Crocodile population in the Sundarbans, consider the following statements: Statement I: The recent survey in 2025 indicated a significant increase in the crocodile population, particularly in the number of hatchlings. Statement II: This increase is a positive indicator of a healthy breeding population and a suitable habitat in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct, as the 2025 survey in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve recorded a rise in the saltwater crocodile population, with a notable increase in the number of hatchlings sighted. Statement II is correct. A significant increase in the number of hatchlings is a strong indicator of successful breeding within the population. It suggests that the environmental conditions, including nesting sites and food availability, are favorable for reproduction. This, in turn, reflects the overall health and suitability of the habitat in the Sundarbans for the crocodiles. Therefore, the observation in Statement I is a direct consequence of the ecological conditions described in Statement II, making Statement II the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct, as the 2025 survey in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve recorded a rise in the saltwater crocodile population, with a notable increase in the number of hatchlings sighted. Statement II is correct. A significant increase in the number of hatchlings is a strong indicator of successful breeding within the population. It suggests that the environmental conditions, including nesting sites and food availability, are favorable for reproduction. This, in turn, reflects the overall health and suitability of the habitat in the Sundarbans for the crocodiles. Therefore, the observation in Statement I is a direct consequence of the ecological conditions described in Statement II, making Statement II the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the Saltwater Crocodile population in the Sundarbans, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The recent survey in 2025 indicated a significant increase in the crocodile population, particularly in the number of hatchlings.

Statement II: This increase is a positive indicator of a healthy breeding population and a suitable habitat in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct, as the 2025 survey in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve recorded a rise in the saltwater crocodile population, with a notable increase in the number of hatchlings sighted.

• Statement II is correct. A significant increase in the number of hatchlings is a strong indicator of successful breeding within the population. It suggests that the environmental conditions, including nesting sites and food availability, are favorable for reproduction. This, in turn, reflects the overall health and suitability of the habitat in the Sundarbans for the crocodiles.

• Therefore, the observation in Statement I is a direct consequence of the ecological conditions described in Statement II, making Statement II the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

• Therefore, the observation in Statement I is a direct consequence of the ecological conditions described in Statement II, making Statement II the correct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Outer Space Treaty (OST) of 1967, consider the following statements: The treaty designates outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, as a global common, preventing any nation from claiming sovereignty over them. It restricts the placement of nuclear weapons in orbit around the Earth but permits the establishment of military bases on celestial bodies for non-aggressive purposes. A signatory state is internationally responsible for national activities in outer space, whether carried out by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities. The treaty makes a launching state liable for damage caused by its space object on Earth, in air space, or in outer space. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden. Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction. Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden. Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction. Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Outer Space Treaty (OST) of 1967, consider the following statements:

• The treaty designates outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, as a global common, preventing any nation from claiming sovereignty over them.

• It restricts the placement of nuclear weapons in orbit around the Earth but permits the establishment of military bases on celestial bodies for non-aggressive purposes.

• A signatory state is internationally responsible for national activities in outer space, whether carried out by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities.

• The treaty makes a launching state liable for damage caused by its space object on Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction.

• Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

Solution: C

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