UPSC Editorials Quiz : 25 September 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025, consider the following statements: It is a nationwide innovation movement specifically targeting university-level engineering and technology students. The initiative is organized solely by the Atal Innovation Mission (NITI Aayog) to promote start-up culture. The themes for the buildathon include ‘Vocal for Local’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The buildathon is specifically targeted at school students, not university students. The aim is to foster innovation at the grassroots level, encouraging problem-solving from a young age. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a key collaborator, the event is organized by the Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, in partnership with AIM and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It is a collaborative effort, not a sole initiative of AIM. Statement 3 is correct. The buildathon is structured around four key themes designed to align with national priorities: Vocal for Local, Atmanirbhar Bharat, Swadeshi, and Samriddhi. These themes encourage students to develop solutions that are contextually relevant to India’s developmental goals. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The buildathon is specifically targeted at school students, not university students. The aim is to foster innovation at the grassroots level, encouraging problem-solving from a young age. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a key collaborator, the event is organized by the Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, in partnership with AIM and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It is a collaborative effort, not a sole initiative of AIM. Statement 3 is correct. The buildathon is structured around four key themes designed to align with national priorities: Vocal for Local, Atmanirbhar Bharat, Swadeshi, and Samriddhi. These themes encourage students to develop solutions that are contextually relevant to India’s developmental goals.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025, consider the following statements:

• It is a nationwide innovation movement specifically targeting university-level engineering and technology students.

• The initiative is organized solely by the Atal Innovation Mission (NITI Aayog) to promote start-up culture.

• The themes for the buildathon include ‘Vocal for Local’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The buildathon is specifically targeted at school students, not university students. The aim is to foster innovation at the grassroots level, encouraging problem-solving from a young age.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a key collaborator, the event is organized by the Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, in partnership with AIM and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It is a collaborative effort, not a sole initiative of AIM.

• Statement 3 is correct. The buildathon is structured around four key themes designed to align with national priorities: Vocal for Local, Atmanirbhar Bharat, Swadeshi, and Samriddhi. These themes encourage students to develop solutions that are contextually relevant to India’s developmental goals.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Fusion: Statement-I: India’s fusion energy research primarily focuses on achieving plasma confinement through powerful magnetic fields in tokamak devices. Statement-II: The inherent safety of fusion reactors stems from the fact that any disruption in control mechanisms leads to the immediate cooling and dispersal of the plasma, preventing a meltdown scenario. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. India’s strategy is heavily reliant on magnetic confinement fusion using tokamaks, such as the SST-1 in Gandhinagar and its contribution to the international ITER project. This method uses strong magnetic fields to contain the superheated plasma, preventing it from touching the reactor walls. Statement-II is correct. One of the major advantages of fusion energy is its inherent safety. The conditions for fusion (extreme temperature and pressure) are difficult to maintain. If there is any malfunction or loss of confinement, the plasma cloud will almost instantly cool down and the fusion reaction will cease. This eliminates the risk of a runaway chain reaction or meltdown, which is a concern in nuclear fission reactors. While both statements are correct, Statement-II explains why fusion is safe, not why India chose tokamaks. Key Features of India’s Fusion Strategy: Magnetic confinement using tokamaks: India relies on tokamak reactors, which use powerful magnetic fields to confine plasma at ultra-high temperatures, mimicking stellar conditions for fusion. Focus on steady-state superconducting technology: Superconducting magnets enable continuous plasma confinement with minimal energy loss, ensuring stability and efficiency in long-duration operations. Fusion-fission hybrid as a bridge to pure fusion: The proposed SST-Bharat will combine fission and fusion, generating partial power from fusion while using fission as a stabilising backup source. State-led R&D with limited private-sector involvement: Most funding and projects are led by the Institute for Plasma Research and Department of Atomic Energy, unlike the US and Europe where start-ups drive progress. Alignment with Net Zero 2070 energy roadmap: Fusion research is part of India’s long-term clean energy strategy, complementing solar, wind, and fission to reduce dependence on fossil fuels. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. India’s strategy is heavily reliant on magnetic confinement fusion using tokamaks, such as the SST-1 in Gandhinagar and its contribution to the international ITER project. This method uses strong magnetic fields to contain the superheated plasma, preventing it from touching the reactor walls. Statement-II is correct. One of the major advantages of fusion energy is its inherent safety. The conditions for fusion (extreme temperature and pressure) are difficult to maintain. If there is any malfunction or loss of confinement, the plasma cloud will almost instantly cool down and the fusion reaction will cease. This eliminates the risk of a runaway chain reaction or meltdown, which is a concern in nuclear fission reactors. While both statements are correct, Statement-II explains why fusion is safe, not why India chose tokamaks. Key Features of India’s Fusion Strategy: Magnetic confinement using tokamaks: India relies on tokamak reactors, which use powerful magnetic fields to confine plasma at ultra-high temperatures, mimicking stellar conditions for fusion. Focus on steady-state superconducting technology: Superconducting magnets enable continuous plasma confinement with minimal energy loss, ensuring stability and efficiency in long-duration operations. Fusion-fission hybrid as a bridge to pure fusion: The proposed SST-Bharat will combine fission and fusion, generating partial power from fusion while using fission as a stabilising backup source. State-led R&D with limited private-sector involvement: Most funding and projects are led by the Institute for Plasma Research and Department of Atomic Energy, unlike the US and Europe where start-ups drive progress. Alignment with Net Zero 2070 energy roadmap: Fusion research is part of India’s long-term clean energy strategy, complementing solar, wind, and fission to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Fusion:

Statement-I: India’s fusion energy research primarily focuses on achieving plasma confinement through powerful magnetic fields in tokamak devices.

Statement-II: The inherent safety of fusion reactors stems from the fact that any disruption in control mechanisms leads to the immediate cooling and dispersal of the plasma, preventing a meltdown scenario.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. India’s strategy is heavily reliant on magnetic confinement fusion using tokamaks, such as the SST-1 in Gandhinagar and its contribution to the international ITER project. This method uses strong magnetic fields to contain the superheated plasma, preventing it from touching the reactor walls.

• Statement-II is correct. One of the major advantages of fusion energy is its inherent safety. The conditions for fusion (extreme temperature and pressure) are difficult to maintain. If there is any malfunction or loss of confinement, the plasma cloud will almost instantly cool down and the fusion reaction will cease. This eliminates the risk of a runaway chain reaction or meltdown, which is a concern in nuclear fission reactors.

• While both statements are correct, Statement-II explains why fusion is safe, not why India chose tokamaks.

Key Features of India’s Fusion Strategy:

• Magnetic confinement using tokamaks: India relies on tokamak reactors, which use powerful magnetic fields to confine plasma at ultra-high temperatures, mimicking stellar conditions for fusion.

• Focus on steady-state superconducting technology: Superconducting magnets enable continuous plasma confinement with minimal energy loss, ensuring stability and efficiency in long-duration operations.

• Fusion-fission hybrid as a bridge to pure fusion: The proposed SST-Bharat will combine fission and fusion, generating partial power from fusion while using fission as a stabilising backup source.

• State-led R&D with limited private-sector involvement: Most funding and projects are led by the Institute for Plasma Research and Department of Atomic Energy, unlike the US and Europe where start-ups drive progress.

• Alignment with Net Zero 2070 energy roadmap: Fusion research is part of India’s long-term clean energy strategy, complementing solar, wind, and fission to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.

Solution: B

• While both statements are correct, Statement-II explains why fusion is safe, not why India chose tokamaks.

Key Features of India’s Fusion Strategy:

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the legal provisions for the acquisition of animals in India: Statement I: The acquisition of any wild animal in India requires prior permission from the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). Statement II: Section 43 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits the transfer of scheduled animals by sale without the permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden. Statement III: All imported animals must undergo a period of veterinary quarantine as per international regulations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Both Statement II and Statement III is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The primary authority for granting permission for the acquisition, possession, or transfer of a scheduled wild animal is the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the state, as mandated by Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is involved in the regulation and recognition of zoos, and may issue permits under the Zoo Rules, 2009, the initial and overarching permission for acquiring a scheduled animal rests with the CWW. Statement II is correct. Section 43 of the Act explicitly prohibits the transfer of scheduled animals through commercial transactions like sale or offer for sale, unless it is done with the prior written permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden. This provision is crucial for curbing the commercial exploitation and illegal trade of wildlife. Statement III is correct. The process of acquiring animals from foreign institutions involves compliance with international agreements like CITES and transport regulations such as the IATA Live Animal Regulations. A mandatory part of this process is a post-arrival veterinary quarantine. This is a standard biosecurity measure to prevent the introduction of exotic diseases and to ensure the health and well-being of the imported animal as well as the native fauna. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The primary authority for granting permission for the acquisition, possession, or transfer of a scheduled wild animal is the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the state, as mandated by Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is involved in the regulation and recognition of zoos, and may issue permits under the Zoo Rules, 2009, the initial and overarching permission for acquiring a scheduled animal rests with the CWW. Statement II is correct. Section 43 of the Act explicitly prohibits the transfer of scheduled animals through commercial transactions like sale or offer for sale, unless it is done with the prior written permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden. This provision is crucial for curbing the commercial exploitation and illegal trade of wildlife. Statement III is correct. The process of acquiring animals from foreign institutions involves compliance with international agreements like CITES and transport regulations such as the IATA Live Animal Regulations. A mandatory part of this process is a post-arrival veterinary quarantine. This is a standard biosecurity measure to prevent the introduction of exotic diseases and to ensure the health and well-being of the imported animal as well as the native fauna.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal provisions for the acquisition of animals in India:

Statement I: The acquisition of any wild animal in India requires prior permission from the Central Zoo Authority (CZA).

Statement II: Section 43 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits the transfer of scheduled animals by sale without the permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden.

Statement III: All imported animals must undergo a period of veterinary quarantine as per international regulations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Both Statement II and Statement III is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. The primary authority for granting permission for the acquisition, possession, or transfer of a scheduled wild animal is the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the state, as mandated by Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is involved in the regulation and recognition of zoos, and may issue permits under the Zoo Rules, 2009, the initial and overarching permission for acquiring a scheduled animal rests with the CWW.

• Statement II is correct. Section 43 of the Act explicitly prohibits the transfer of scheduled animals through commercial transactions like sale or offer for sale, unless it is done with the prior written permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden. This provision is crucial for curbing the commercial exploitation and illegal trade of wildlife.

• Statement III is correct. The process of acquiring animals from foreign institutions involves compliance with international agreements like CITES and transport regulations such as the IATA Live Animal Regulations. A mandatory part of this process is a post-arrival veterinary quarantine. This is a standard biosecurity measure to prevent the introduction of exotic diseases and to ensure the health and well-being of the imported animal as well as the native fauna.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the history of Sarnath: The site was known as Mrigadava in ancient Buddhist texts. The patronage of the Kushana and Gupta dynasties led to a decline in the monastic activities at Sarnath. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as Sarnath was known as Mrigadava (deer park) or Rishipatana in ancient Buddhist literature. Statement 2 is incorrect; in fact, the Kushana and Gupta periods (1st to 6th centuries CE) were a time of great prosperity for Sarnath. During this era, existing structures were expanded, and new monasteries and stupas were built, making it a flourishing center of Buddhist learning and art. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as Sarnath was known as Mrigadava (deer park) or Rishipatana in ancient Buddhist literature. Statement 2 is incorrect; in fact, the Kushana and Gupta periods (1st to 6th centuries CE) were a time of great prosperity for Sarnath. During this era, existing structures were expanded, and new monasteries and stupas were built, making it a flourishing center of Buddhist learning and art.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the history of Sarnath:

• The site was known as Mrigadava in ancient Buddhist texts.

• The patronage of the Kushana and Gupta dynasties led to a decline in the monastic activities at Sarnath.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct as Sarnath was known as Mrigadava (deer park) or Rishipatana in ancient Buddhist literature.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; in fact, the Kushana and Gupta periods (1st to 6th centuries CE) were a time of great prosperity for Sarnath. During this era, existing structures were expanded, and new monasteries and stupas were built, making it a flourishing center of Buddhist learning and art.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct as Sarnath was known as Mrigadava (deer park) or Rishipatana in ancient Buddhist literature.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to nuclear fusion and fission, consider the following statements: Nuclear fusion involves the splitting of heavy atomic nuclei, while fission involves the joining of light atomic nuclei. Fusion reactions produce minimal long-lived radioactive waste compared to fission reactions. The fuel for fusion, primarily isotopes of hydrogen like deuterium and tritium, is less abundant and harder to source than uranium used for fission. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Fission is the process of splitting a heavy, unstable nucleus (like Uranium-235) into two lighter nuclei. Fusion is the process where two light atomic nuclei (like hydrogen isotopes) combine or fuse to form a heavier nucleus, releasing immense energy. Statement 2 is correct. Fission reactors produce significant amounts of high-level, long-lived radioactive waste that requires secure long-term storage. Fusion reactions, in contrast, produce very little long-lived waste. The main radioactive product is the reactor material itself becoming activated by neutrons, but this has a much shorter half-life. Statement 3 is incorrect. The fuel for fusion is considered virtually inexhaustible. Deuterium can be extracted from seawater, making it incredibly abundant. Tritium can be produced from lithium, which is also plentiful in the Earth’s crust and oceans. This contrasts with uranium, the fuel for fission, which is a finite resource that must be mined. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Fission is the process of splitting a heavy, unstable nucleus (like Uranium-235) into two lighter nuclei. Fusion is the process where two light atomic nuclei (like hydrogen isotopes) combine or fuse to form a heavier nucleus, releasing immense energy. Statement 2 is correct. Fission reactors produce significant amounts of high-level, long-lived radioactive waste that requires secure long-term storage. Fusion reactions, in contrast, produce very little long-lived waste. The main radioactive product is the reactor material itself becoming activated by neutrons, but this has a much shorter half-life. Statement 3 is incorrect. The fuel for fusion is considered virtually inexhaustible. Deuterium can be extracted from seawater, making it incredibly abundant. Tritium can be produced from lithium, which is also plentiful in the Earth’s crust and oceans. This contrasts with uranium, the fuel for fission, which is a finite resource that must be mined.

#### 5. Question

With reference to nuclear fusion and fission, consider the following statements:

• Nuclear fusion involves the splitting of heavy atomic nuclei, while fission involves the joining of light atomic nuclei.

• Fusion reactions produce minimal long-lived radioactive waste compared to fission reactions.

• The fuel for fusion, primarily isotopes of hydrogen like deuterium and tritium, is less abundant and harder to source than uranium used for fission.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Fission is the process of splitting a heavy, unstable nucleus (like Uranium-235) into two lighter nuclei. Fusion is the process where two light atomic nuclei (like hydrogen isotopes) combine or fuse to form a heavier nucleus, releasing immense energy.

• Statement 2 is correct. Fission reactors produce significant amounts of high-level, long-lived radioactive waste that requires secure long-term storage. Fusion reactions, in contrast, produce very little long-lived waste. The main radioactive product is the reactor material itself becoming activated by neutrons, but this has a much shorter half-life.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The fuel for fusion is considered virtually inexhaustible. Deuterium can be extracted from seawater, making it incredibly abundant. Tritium can be produced from lithium, which is also plentiful in the Earth’s crust and oceans. This contrasts with uranium, the fuel for fission, which is a finite resource that must be mined.

Solution: A

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