UPSC Editorials Quiz : 25 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25, consider the following statements: It is a competitive framework initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to foster cleanliness among Indian cities. The “Super Swachh League” was introduced as a new category to recognize cities that have demonstrated sustained excellence in urban sanitation over several years. To be eligible for the Super Swachh League, a city must have a minimum Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating and consistently high ranks in previous surveys. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Swachh Survekshan is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is primarily concerned with water resources and sanitation in rural areas (Swachh Bharat Mission – Grameen). Statement 2 is correct. The Super Swachh League is a new and significant addition to the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25. Its objective is to create a premier category for cities that have shown consistent, high-level performance in sanitation and cleanliness over multiple assessment cycles, thereby promoting sustained efforts rather than short-term improvements. Statement 3 is correct. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is stringent and based on long-term performance indicators. This includes achieving a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or above) and maintaining high rankings across key sanitation parameters like source segregation and ODF++ status in past Swachh Survekshan editions. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Swachh Survekshan is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is primarily concerned with water resources and sanitation in rural areas (Swachh Bharat Mission – Grameen). Statement 2 is correct. The Super Swachh League is a new and significant addition to the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25. Its objective is to create a premier category for cities that have shown consistent, high-level performance in sanitation and cleanliness over multiple assessment cycles, thereby promoting sustained efforts rather than short-term improvements. Statement 3 is correct. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is stringent and based on long-term performance indicators. This includes achieving a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or above) and maintaining high rankings across key sanitation parameters like source segregation and ODF++ status in past Swachh Survekshan editions.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25, consider the following statements:

• It is a competitive framework initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to foster cleanliness among Indian cities.

• The “Super Swachh League” was introduced as a new category to recognize cities that have demonstrated sustained excellence in urban sanitation over several years.

• To be eligible for the Super Swachh League, a city must have a minimum Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating and consistently high ranks in previous surveys.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Swachh Survekshan is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is primarily concerned with water resources and sanitation in rural areas (Swachh Bharat Mission – Grameen).

• Statement 2 is correct. The Super Swachh League is a new and significant addition to the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25. Its objective is to create a premier category for cities that have shown consistent, high-level performance in sanitation and cleanliness over multiple assessment cycles, thereby promoting sustained efforts rather than short-term improvements.

Statement 3 is correct. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is stringent and based on long-term performance indicators. This includes achieving a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or above) and maintaining high rankings across key sanitation parameters like source segregation and ODF++ status in past Swachh Survekshan editions.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC): The committee is constituted every year and comprises members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, with representation from the latter being half of that from the former. The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and by convention, is a senior member from the treasury benches. The PAC’s primary function involves the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, based on the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches. Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches. Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

• The committee is constituted every year and comprises members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, with representation from the latter being half of that from the former.

• The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and by convention, is a senior member from the treasury benches.

• The PAC’s primary function involves the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, based on the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches.

Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Disaster Management Act, 2005: The Disaster Management Act of 2005 provided the legal and institutional framework for a paradigm shift from a relief-centric to a more holistic approach encompassing prevention, mitigation, and preparedness. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a statutory body under the Act, responsible exclusively for post-disaster response and rescue operations. The Act established a three-tiered structure with National, State, and District Disaster Management Authorities (NDMA, SDMA, DDMA) to ensure decentralized planning and response. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 was a landmark legislation. It institutionalized a move away from the earlier model, which focused primarily on providing relief after a disaster had occurred. The Act mandated a proactive and integrated approach, emphasizing disaster risk reduction, which includes prevention, mitigation, and preparedness activities, making the system more resilient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the NDRF is a specialized force for response and rescue, its role is not “exclusively” post-disaster. The NDRF is actively involved in preparedness activities, such as community awareness programs, mock drills, and capacity building for state forces, which are crucial components of disaster risk reduction. Statement 3 is correct. The Act created a hierarchical yet decentralized framework. It established the NDMA at the national level, SDMAs at the state level, and DDMAs at the district level. This structure is designed to ensure that planning, coordination, and implementation of disaster management plans are carried out effectively at all administrative levels, from policy formulation to on-the-ground action. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 was a landmark legislation. It institutionalized a move away from the earlier model, which focused primarily on providing relief after a disaster had occurred. The Act mandated a proactive and integrated approach, emphasizing disaster risk reduction, which includes prevention, mitigation, and preparedness activities, making the system more resilient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the NDRF is a specialized force for response and rescue, its role is not “exclusively” post-disaster. The NDRF is actively involved in preparedness activities, such as community awareness programs, mock drills, and capacity building for state forces, which are crucial components of disaster risk reduction. Statement 3 is correct. The Act created a hierarchical yet decentralized framework. It established the NDMA at the national level, SDMAs at the state level, and DDMAs at the district level. This structure is designed to ensure that planning, coordination, and implementation of disaster management plans are carried out effectively at all administrative levels, from policy formulation to on-the-ground action.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Disaster Management Act, 2005:

• The Disaster Management Act of 2005 provided the legal and institutional framework for a paradigm shift from a relief-centric to a more holistic approach encompassing prevention, mitigation, and preparedness.

• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a statutory body under the Act, responsible exclusively for post-disaster response and rescue operations.

• The Act established a three-tiered structure with National, State, and District Disaster Management Authorities (NDMA, SDMA, DDMA) to ensure decentralized planning and response.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 was a landmark legislation. It institutionalized a move away from the earlier model, which focused primarily on providing relief after a disaster had occurred. The Act mandated a proactive and integrated approach, emphasizing disaster risk reduction, which includes prevention, mitigation, and preparedness activities, making the system more resilient.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the NDRF is a specialized force for response and rescue, its role is not “exclusively” post-disaster. The NDRF is actively involved in preparedness activities, such as community awareness programs, mock drills, and capacity building for state forces, which are crucial components of disaster risk reduction.

Statement 3 is correct. The Act created a hierarchical yet decentralized framework. It established the NDMA at the national level, SDMAs at the state level, and DDMAs at the district level. This structure is designed to ensure that planning, coordination, and implementation of disaster management plans are carried out effectively at all administrative levels, from policy formulation to on-the-ground action.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to India’s vulnerability to earthquakes, consider the following statements: More than 75% of India’s landmass is classified as being in seismic zones III, IV, or V. The high seismicity of the Himalayan belt is primarily due to the divergent movement of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates. The city of Delhi is located in Seismic Zone IV, indicating a high damage risk zone. The risk in cities like Guwahati is compounded by its location on a floodplain, which can amplify seismic waves. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. 59% of India is earthquake-prone across Zones II–V. Statement 2 is incorrect. The high seismicity in the Himalayas is due to the tectonic convergence, where the Indian plate is drifting into and under the Eurasian plate at a rate of 4–5 cm/year. This is a convergent boundary, not a divergent one. Divergent movement involves plates moving apart. Statement 3 is correct. Delhi is classified under Seismic Zone IV, which is designated as a “High Damage Risk Zone”. Statement 4 is correct. The seismic risk in Guwahati, which is in the highest-risk Zone V, is exacerbated by its geographical setting. Its location on a floodplain means the soft alluvial soil can amplify the ground shaking during an earthquake, a phenomenon known as soil liquefaction, leading to more severe damage than on solid ground. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. 59% of India is earthquake-prone across Zones II–V. Statement 2 is incorrect. The high seismicity in the Himalayas is due to the tectonic convergence, where the Indian plate is drifting into and under the Eurasian plate at a rate of 4–5 cm/year. This is a convergent boundary, not a divergent one. Divergent movement involves plates moving apart. Statement 3 is correct. Delhi is classified under Seismic Zone IV, which is designated as a “High Damage Risk Zone”. Statement 4 is correct. The seismic risk in Guwahati, which is in the highest-risk Zone V, is exacerbated by its geographical setting. Its location on a floodplain means the soft alluvial soil can amplify the ground shaking during an earthquake, a phenomenon known as soil liquefaction, leading to more severe damage than on solid ground.

#### 4. Question

With reference to India’s vulnerability to earthquakes, consider the following statements:

• More than 75% of India’s landmass is classified as being in seismic zones III, IV, or V.

• The high seismicity of the Himalayan belt is primarily due to the divergent movement of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates.

• The city of Delhi is located in Seismic Zone IV, indicating a high damage risk zone.

• The risk in cities like Guwahati is compounded by its location on a floodplain, which can amplify seismic waves.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 2 and 4 only

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. 59% of India is earthquake-prone across Zones II–V.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The high seismicity in the Himalayas is due to the tectonic convergence, where the Indian plate is drifting into and under the Eurasian plate at a rate of 4–5 cm/year. This is a convergent boundary, not a divergent one. Divergent movement involves plates moving apart.

• Statement 3 is correct. Delhi is classified under Seismic Zone IV, which is designated as a “High Damage Risk Zone”.

• Statement 4 is correct. The seismic risk in Guwahati, which is in the highest-risk Zone V, is exacerbated by its geographical setting. Its location on a floodplain means the soft alluvial soil can amplify the ground shaking during an earthquake, a phenomenon known as soil liquefaction, leading to more severe damage than on solid ground.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. 59% of India is earthquake-prone across Zones II–V.

• Statement 3 is correct. Delhi is classified under Seismic Zone IV, which is designated as a “High Damage Risk Zone”.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Nagshankar Temple Model for Turtle Conservation: This conservation model is exclusively focused on the in-situ breeding of the Indian Softshell Turtle. The temple pond is an artificial, isolated water body with no connection to natural river systems. The initiative is a collaborative effort involving the temple committee, conservation NGOs, and the state forest department. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The conservation effort is not exclusive to one species. The temple pond is home to at least three rare species: the critically endangered Black Softshell Turtle, the Indian Softshell Turtle, and the Malayan Softshell Turtle. The focus on the Black Softshell Turtle is particularly significant. Statement 2 is incorrect. The pond is not isolated; it is fed by the Brahmaputra River basin. This natural connection is crucial for maintaining a suitable habitat for the turtles. Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Nagshankar model lies in its collaborative approach. It involves the Nagshankar Temple Committee, scientific support from NGOs like the Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) India and Help Earth, and technical intervention (like artificial incubation of eggs) from the Assam Forest Department and Kaziranga National Park authorities. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The conservation effort is not exclusive to one species. The temple pond is home to at least three rare species: the critically endangered Black Softshell Turtle, the Indian Softshell Turtle, and the Malayan Softshell Turtle. The focus on the Black Softshell Turtle is particularly significant. Statement 2 is incorrect. The pond is not isolated; it is fed by the Brahmaputra River basin. This natural connection is crucial for maintaining a suitable habitat for the turtles. Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Nagshankar model lies in its collaborative approach. It involves the Nagshankar Temple Committee, scientific support from NGOs like the Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) India and Help Earth, and technical intervention (like artificial incubation of eggs) from the Assam Forest Department and Kaziranga National Park authorities.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nagshankar Temple Model for Turtle Conservation:

• This conservation model is exclusively focused on the in-situ breeding of the Indian Softshell Turtle.

• The temple pond is an artificial, isolated water body with no connection to natural river systems.

• The initiative is a collaborative effort involving the temple committee, conservation NGOs, and the state forest department.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The conservation effort is not exclusive to one species. The temple pond is home to at least three rare species: the critically endangered Black Softshell Turtle, the Indian Softshell Turtle, and the Malayan Softshell Turtle. The focus on the Black Softshell Turtle is particularly significant.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The pond is not isolated; it is fed by the Brahmaputra River basin. This natural connection is crucial for maintaining a suitable habitat for the turtles.

• Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Nagshankar model lies in its collaborative approach. It involves the Nagshankar Temple Committee, scientific support from NGOs like the Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) India and Help Earth, and technical intervention (like artificial incubation of eggs) from the Assam Forest Department and Kaziranga National Park authorities.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The pond is not isolated; it is fed by the Brahmaputra River basin. This natural connection is crucial for maintaining a suitable habitat for the turtles.

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