UPSC Editorials Quiz : 24 November 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following are potential applications of Precision Biotherapeutics? Correcting faulty genes in genetic disorders like Thalassemia using gene-replacement techniques. Generating vaccines rapidly matched to emerging viral strains using mRNA platforms. Personalizing treatment for lipid disorders and hypertension through RNA-based drugs and molecular diagnostics. Enabling CAR-T cell engineering and genomic tumour profiling for highly targeted cancer care. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Solution: D All four statements accurately reflect the diverse and evolving applications of Precision Biotherapeutics, which are unified by the focus on a patient’s individual molecular makeup. This field is defined by the use of advanced tools like genomics, targeted biologics, and cellular therapies. Statement 1 is correct: CRISPR and gene-replacement techniques target the cause of inherited conditions, offering long-term, near-curative outcomes for genetic disorders. Statement 2 is correct: The adaptability of mRNA platforms allows for the rapid generation of vaccines tailored to new viral threats, improving infectious disease response. Statement 3 is correct: RNA-based drugs and advanced molecular diagnostics are used to personalize treatment for complex conditions like diabetes and lipid disorders by addressing unique biological risk patterns. Statement 4 is correct: It is a core application in oncology, where CAR-T cell engineering and genomic tumour profiling facilitate highly targeted cancer therapies with minimized systemic impact. Incorrect Solution: D All four statements accurately reflect the diverse and evolving applications of Precision Biotherapeutics, which are unified by the focus on a patient’s individual molecular makeup. This field is defined by the use of advanced tools like genomics, targeted biologics, and cellular therapies. Statement 1 is correct: CRISPR and gene-replacement techniques target the cause of inherited conditions, offering long-term, near-curative outcomes for genetic disorders. Statement 2 is correct: The adaptability of mRNA platforms allows for the rapid generation of vaccines tailored to new viral threats, improving infectious disease response. Statement 3 is correct: RNA-based drugs and advanced molecular diagnostics are used to personalize treatment for complex conditions like diabetes and lipid disorders by addressing unique biological risk patterns. Statement 4 is correct: It is a core application in oncology, where CAR-T cell engineering and genomic tumour profiling facilitate highly targeted cancer therapies with minimized systemic impact.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following are potential applications of Precision Biotherapeutics?

• Correcting faulty genes in genetic disorders like Thalassemia using gene-replacement techniques.

• Generating vaccines rapidly matched to emerging viral strains using mRNA platforms.

• Personalizing treatment for lipid disorders and hypertension through RNA-based drugs and molecular diagnostics.

• Enabling CAR-T cell engineering and genomic tumour profiling for highly targeted cancer care.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: D

• All four statements accurately reflect the diverse and evolving applications of Precision Biotherapeutics, which are unified by the focus on a patient’s individual molecular makeup. This field is defined by the use of advanced tools like genomics, targeted biologics, and cellular therapies.

• Statement 1 is correct: CRISPR and gene-replacement techniques target the cause of inherited conditions, offering long-term, near-curative outcomes for genetic disorders.

• Statement 2 is correct: The adaptability of mRNA platforms allows for the rapid generation of vaccines tailored to new viral threats, improving infectious disease response.

• Statement 3 is correct: RNA-based drugs and advanced molecular diagnostics are used to personalize treatment for complex conditions like diabetes and lipid disorders by addressing unique biological risk patterns.

• Statement 4 is correct: It is a core application in oncology, where CAR-T cell engineering and genomic tumour profiling facilitate highly targeted cancer therapies with minimized systemic impact.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct: CRISPR and gene-replacement techniques target the cause of inherited conditions, offering long-term, near-curative outcomes for genetic disorders.

• Statement 2 is correct: The adaptability of mRNA platforms allows for the rapid generation of vaccines tailored to new viral threats, improving infectious disease response.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The constitutional scheme dictates that while the High Courts are primarily responsible for administrative supervision and control over the subordinate judiciary, the recruitment process for both the Lower and Higher Judicial Services is managed solely by the State Governments through the respective Public Service Commissions (PSCs). Statement II: The ‘federal balance’ in judicial governance, enshrined in Articles 233-237, is maintained because the appointment, posting, and promotion of District Judges require the High Court’s consultation, thereby checking the executive’s unilateral control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect: The constitutional basis (Articles 233-237) assigns recruitment, appointment, control, and administrative supervision of the subordinate judiciary jointly to High Courts and State Governments. While State Governments manage court buildings, financial outlays, and help conduct judicial service exams, the High Courts retain primary oversight on inspections, postings, promotions, and discipline. Crucially, the Lower Judicial Service recruits fresh law graduates typically through exams conducted by PSCs, but Higher Judicial Service recruits experienced advocates (7+ years) directly as District Judges, where the High Court’s role in selection and consultation is paramount. Statement II is correct: Articles 233-237 ensure a federal balance in judicial governance. This balance is structurally achieved by mandating the joint responsibility of High Courts and State Governments, particularly where the High Courts’ oversight on key personnel matters (postings, promotions, discipline, and selection of District Judges) prevents the State Executive from having unfettered control, thus strengthening the judicial independence within the federal structure. The constitutional provisions make the consultation with the High Court mandatory for District Judge appointments. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect: The constitutional basis (Articles 233-237) assigns recruitment, appointment, control, and administrative supervision of the subordinate judiciary jointly to High Courts and State Governments. While State Governments manage court buildings, financial outlays, and help conduct judicial service exams, the High Courts retain primary oversight on inspections, postings, promotions, and discipline. Crucially, the Lower Judicial Service recruits fresh law graduates typically through exams conducted by PSCs, but Higher Judicial Service recruits experienced advocates (7+ years) directly as District Judges, where the High Court’s role in selection and consultation is paramount. Statement II is correct: Articles 233-237 ensure a federal balance in judicial governance. This balance is structurally achieved by mandating the joint responsibility of High Courts and State Governments, particularly where the High Courts’ oversight on key personnel matters (postings, promotions, discipline, and selection of District Judges) prevents the State Executive from having unfettered control, thus strengthening the judicial independence within the federal structure. The constitutional provisions make the consultation with the High Court mandatory for District Judge appointments.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The constitutional scheme dictates that while the High Courts are primarily responsible for administrative supervision and control over the subordinate judiciary, the recruitment process for both the Lower and Higher Judicial Services is managed solely by the State Governments through the respective Public Service Commissions (PSCs).

Statement II: The ‘federal balance’ in judicial governance, enshrined in Articles 233-237, is maintained because the appointment, posting, and promotion of District Judges require the High Court’s consultation, thereby checking the executive’s unilateral control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect: The constitutional basis (Articles 233-237) assigns recruitment, appointment, control, and administrative supervision of the subordinate judiciary jointly to High Courts and State Governments. While State Governments manage court buildings, financial outlays, and help conduct judicial service exams, the High Courts retain primary oversight on inspections, postings, promotions, and discipline. Crucially, the Lower Judicial Service recruits fresh law graduates typically through exams conducted by PSCs, but Higher Judicial Service recruits experienced advocates (7+ years) directly as District Judges, where the High Court’s role in selection and consultation is paramount.

• Statement II is correct: Articles 233-237 ensure a federal balance in judicial governance. This balance is structurally achieved by mandating the joint responsibility of High Courts and State Governments, particularly where the High Courts’ oversight on key personnel matters (postings, promotions, discipline, and selection of District Judges) prevents the State Executive from having unfettered control, thus strengthening the judicial independence within the federal structure. The constitutional provisions make the consultation with the High Court mandatory for District Judge appointments.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Hamara Shauchalaya, Hamara Bhavishya’ Campaign: It is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development to upgrade urban sanitation infrastructure. The campaign focuses on the construction of new Individual Household Latrines (IHHLs) and does not cover maintenance of existing structures. It involves community participation ranging from Self Help Groups to Padma awardees and school students. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The campaign is spearheaded by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Furthermore, its primary focus is on upgrading rural toilets and promoting community-led sanitation in Gram Panchayats, rather than urban infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative is not limited to new construction. A core feature is the functionality and repair of existing facilities. It focuses on restoring Community Sanitary Complexes (CSCs) and Individual Household Latrines (IHHLs), including improvements in Operation and Maintenance (O&M). It also includes aesthetic upgradation like painting and beautification. Statement 3 is correct: The campaign emphasises broad community participation. It actively involves diverse groups including NSS, NYKS, NCC, senior citizens, youth groups, and even Padma awardees. The drive also includes school-based sanitation education and the felicitation of sanitation workers. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The campaign is spearheaded by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Furthermore, its primary focus is on upgrading rural toilets and promoting community-led sanitation in Gram Panchayats, rather than urban infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative is not limited to new construction. A core feature is the functionality and repair of existing facilities. It focuses on restoring Community Sanitary Complexes (CSCs) and Individual Household Latrines (IHHLs), including improvements in Operation and Maintenance (O&M). It also includes aesthetic upgradation like painting and beautification. Statement 3 is correct: The campaign emphasises broad community participation. It actively involves diverse groups including NSS, NYKS, NCC, senior citizens, youth groups, and even Padma awardees. The drive also includes school-based sanitation education and the felicitation of sanitation workers.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Hamara Shauchalaya, Hamara Bhavishya’ Campaign:

• It is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development to upgrade urban sanitation infrastructure.

• The campaign focuses on the construction of new Individual Household Latrines (IHHLs) and does not cover maintenance of existing structures.

• It involves community participation ranging from Self Help Groups to Padma awardees and school students.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The campaign is spearheaded by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Furthermore, its primary focus is on upgrading rural toilets and promoting community-led sanitation in Gram Panchayats, rather than urban infrastructure.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative is not limited to new construction. A core feature is the functionality and repair of existing facilities. It focuses on restoring Community Sanitary Complexes (CSCs) and Individual Household Latrines (IHHLs), including improvements in Operation and Maintenance (O&M). It also includes aesthetic upgradation like painting and beautification.

• Statement 3 is correct: The campaign emphasises broad community participation. It actively involves diverse groups including NSS, NYKS, NCC, senior citizens, youth groups, and even Padma awardees. The drive also includes school-based sanitation education and the felicitation of sanitation workers.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY)’: The scheme is modeled on the Aspirational Districts Programme and focuses on 100 districts selected based on indicators such as low productivity and moderate cropping intensity. It mandates the establishment of a ‘Dhan-Dhaanya Samiti’ at the district level, chaired by the District Collector, to formulate the District Agriculture & Allied Activities Plan. The funding pattern of the scheme follows a 100% Central Sector model, with no financial contribution required from State Governments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B The PMDDKY was approved by the Cabinet to address regional disparities in agricultural productivity, operationalizing the vision of “One Nation, One Agriculture”. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme explicitly draws inspiration from the Aspirational Districts Programme. It targets 100 districts identified through a rigorous filtering process based on low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and below-average credit penetration. The goal is to lift these lagging districts to the national average. Statement 2 is correct: To ensure decentralized planning and convergence, the scheme creates a “Dhan-Dhaanya Samiti” in each selected district. This committee is chaired by the District Collector (or CEO Zilla Parishad in some permutations, but primarily the Collector for administrative authority) and includes progressive farmers and line-department officers. Their mandate is to create a converged “District Action Plan”. Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not a Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre). It operates on a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with a 60:40 funding split between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states). The scheme emphasizes “additionality” and convergence of 36 existing schemes rather than replacing state expenditure. Incorrect Solution: B The PMDDKY was approved by the Cabinet to address regional disparities in agricultural productivity, operationalizing the vision of “One Nation, One Agriculture”. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme explicitly draws inspiration from the Aspirational Districts Programme. It targets 100 districts identified through a rigorous filtering process based on low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and below-average credit penetration. The goal is to lift these lagging districts to the national average. Statement 2 is correct: To ensure decentralized planning and convergence, the scheme creates a “Dhan-Dhaanya Samiti” in each selected district. This committee is chaired by the District Collector (or CEO Zilla Parishad in some permutations, but primarily the Collector for administrative authority) and includes progressive farmers and line-department officers. Their mandate is to create a converged “District Action Plan”. Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not a Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre). It operates on a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with a 60:40 funding split between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states). The scheme emphasizes “additionality” and convergence of 36 existing schemes rather than replacing state expenditure.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY)’:

• The scheme is modeled on the Aspirational Districts Programme and focuses on 100 districts selected based on indicators such as low productivity and moderate cropping intensity.

• It mandates the establishment of a ‘Dhan-Dhaanya Samiti’ at the district level, chaired by the District Collector, to formulate the District Agriculture & Allied Activities Plan.

• The funding pattern of the scheme follows a 100% Central Sector model, with no financial contribution required from State Governments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

• The PMDDKY was approved by the Cabinet to address regional disparities in agricultural productivity, operationalizing the vision of “One Nation, One Agriculture”.

• Statement 1 is correct: The scheme explicitly draws inspiration from the Aspirational Districts Programme. It targets 100 districts identified through a rigorous filtering process based on low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and below-average credit penetration. The goal is to lift these lagging districts to the national average.

• Statement 2 is correct: To ensure decentralized planning and convergence, the scheme creates a “Dhan-Dhaanya Samiti” in each selected district. This committee is chaired by the District Collector (or CEO Zilla Parishad in some permutations, but primarily the Collector for administrative authority) and includes progressive farmers and line-department officers. Their mandate is to create a converged “District Action Plan”.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not a Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre). It operates on a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with a 60:40 funding split between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states). The scheme emphasizes “additionality” and convergence of 36 existing schemes rather than replacing state expenditure.

Solution: B

• The PMDDKY was approved by the Cabinet to address regional disparities in agricultural productivity, operationalizing the vision of “One Nation, One Agriculture”.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the naming and formation of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean: Cyclones in the Bay of Bengal are generally more frequent and intense than those in the Arabian Sea due to higher Sea Surface Temperatures (SST) and lower wind shear. Once a name is used for a cyclone, it is retired and not used again for at least 10 years. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Historically, the Bay of Bengal hosts a significantly higher frequency of cyclones (ratio of approx 4:1) compared to the Arabian Sea. This is due to the warmer waters (higher SSTs), the concave shape of the bay which funnels storms, and generally lower vertical wind shear, all of which favor cyclogenesis and intensification. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the WMO/ESCAP protocols, once a name is used for a tropical cyclone, it is retired immediately and never used again. There is no “10-year” reuse rule. This is to ensure historical clarity and avoid confusion in record-keeping. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Historically, the Bay of Bengal hosts a significantly higher frequency of cyclones (ratio of approx 4:1) compared to the Arabian Sea. This is due to the warmer waters (higher SSTs), the concave shape of the bay which funnels storms, and generally lower vertical wind shear, all of which favor cyclogenesis and intensification. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the WMO/ESCAP protocols, once a name is used for a tropical cyclone, it is retired immediately and never used again. There is no “10-year” reuse rule. This is to ensure historical clarity and avoid confusion in record-keeping.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the naming and formation of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean:

• Cyclones in the Bay of Bengal are generally more frequent and intense than those in the Arabian Sea due to higher Sea Surface Temperatures (SST) and lower wind shear.

• Once a name is used for a cyclone, it is retired and not used again for at least 10 years.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Historically, the Bay of Bengal hosts a significantly higher frequency of cyclones (ratio of approx 4:1) compared to the Arabian Sea. This is due to the warmer waters (higher SSTs), the concave shape of the bay which funnels storms, and generally lower vertical wind shear, all of which favor cyclogenesis and intensification.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the WMO/ESCAP protocols, once a name is used for a tropical cyclone, it is retired immediately and never used again. There is no “10-year” reuse rule. This is to ensure historical clarity and avoid confusion in record-keeping.

Solution: D

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