UPSC Editorials Quiz : 24 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding India’s Semiconductor Mission: The mission was launched to establish India as a global hub for semiconductor design and manufacturing, aiming to reduce import dependency. It provides fiscal support of 100% of the project cost for setting up Semiconductor Fabs in India. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is a component of the India Semiconductor Mission, aimed at supporting semiconductor design startups. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), launched in December 2021, aims to build a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India, thereby reducing reliance on imports and positioning India as a global leader in this sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Modified Scheme for setting up of Semiconductor Fabs in India, under the ISM, extends fiscal support of 50% of the project cost for setting up Silicon CMOS based Semiconductor Fabs, not 100%. Similar 50% support is available for Display Fabs and Compound Semiconductors/ATMP/OSAT facilities. Statement 3 is correct. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is one of the four major schemes under the India Semiconductor Mission. It aims to offer financial incentives and design infrastructure support to domestic companies, startups, and MSMEs involved in semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores, and semiconductor-linked design. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), launched in December 2021, aims to build a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India, thereby reducing reliance on imports and positioning India as a global leader in this sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Modified Scheme for setting up of Semiconductor Fabs in India, under the ISM, extends fiscal support of 50% of the project cost for setting up Silicon CMOS based Semiconductor Fabs, not 100%. Similar 50% support is available for Display Fabs and Compound Semiconductors/ATMP/OSAT facilities. Statement 3 is correct. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is one of the four major schemes under the India Semiconductor Mission. It aims to offer financial incentives and design infrastructure support to domestic companies, startups, and MSMEs involved in semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores, and semiconductor-linked design.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s Semiconductor Mission:

• The mission was launched to establish India as a global hub for semiconductor design and manufacturing, aiming to reduce import dependency.

• It provides fiscal support of 100% of the project cost for setting up Semiconductor Fabs in India.

• The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is a component of the India Semiconductor Mission, aimed at supporting semiconductor design startups.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), launched in December 2021, aims to build a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India, thereby reducing reliance on imports and positioning India as a global leader in this sector.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Modified Scheme for setting up of Semiconductor Fabs in India, under the ISM, extends fiscal support of 50% of the project cost for setting up Silicon CMOS based Semiconductor Fabs, not 100%. Similar 50% support is available for Display Fabs and Compound Semiconductors/ATMP/OSAT facilities.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme is one of the four major schemes under the India Semiconductor Mission. It aims to offer financial incentives and design infrastructure support to domestic companies, startups, and MSMEs involved in semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores, and semiconductor-linked design.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following technologies and their potential applications: Genome Editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9): Development of climate-resilient crop varieties. CAR-T Cell Therapy: Treatment for certain types of cancer by modifying a patient’s immune cells. DNA Data Storage: Using synthetic DNA molecules for high-density, long-term information archiving. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Genome Editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9): This technology allows for precise alterations to an organism’s genetic material. It has significant applications in agriculture, including the development of crop varieties that are more resilient to climate change impacts like drought, pests, or diseases. India has recently developed genome-edited rice varieties using SDN-1 and SDN-2 methods. This pair is correctly matched. CAR-T Cell Therapy: Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR)-T cell therapy is a form of immunotherapy where a patient’s T cells (a type of immune cell) are genetically engineered to recognize and attack cancer cells. It has shown remarkable success in treating certain hematological malignancies (blood cancers). India has launched its first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy, NexCAR19. This pair is correctly matched. DNA Data Storage: DNA, with its high information density and stability, is being explored as a medium for long-term data storage. Information can be encoded into sequences of synthetic DNA. This technology holds promise for archiving vast amounts of digital data. This pair is correctly matched. Incorrect Solution: d) Genome Editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9): This technology allows for precise alterations to an organism’s genetic material. It has significant applications in agriculture, including the development of crop varieties that are more resilient to climate change impacts like drought, pests, or diseases. India has recently developed genome-edited rice varieties using SDN-1 and SDN-2 methods. This pair is correctly matched. CAR-T Cell Therapy: Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR)-T cell therapy is a form of immunotherapy where a patient’s T cells (a type of immune cell) are genetically engineered to recognize and attack cancer cells. It has shown remarkable success in treating certain hematological malignancies (blood cancers). India has launched its first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy, NexCAR19. This pair is correctly matched. DNA Data Storage: DNA, with its high information density and stability, is being explored as a medium for long-term data storage. Information can be encoded into sequences of synthetic DNA. This technology holds promise for archiving vast amounts of digital data. This pair is correctly matched.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following technologies and their potential applications:

• Genome Editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9): Development of climate-resilient crop varieties.

• CAR-T Cell Therapy: Treatment for certain types of cancer by modifying a patient’s immune cells.

• DNA Data Storage: Using synthetic DNA molecules for high-density, long-term information archiving.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

• Genome Editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9): This technology allows for precise alterations to an organism’s genetic material. It has significant applications in agriculture, including the development of crop varieties that are more resilient to climate change impacts like drought, pests, or diseases. India has recently developed genome-edited rice varieties using SDN-1 and SDN-2 methods. This pair is correctly matched.

• CAR-T Cell Therapy: Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR)-T cell therapy is a form of immunotherapy where a patient’s T cells (a type of immune cell) are genetically engineered to recognize and attack cancer cells. It has shown remarkable success in treating certain hematological malignancies (blood cancers). India has launched its first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy, NexCAR19. This pair is correctly matched.

• DNA Data Storage: DNA, with its high information density and stability, is being explored as a medium for long-term data storage. Information can be encoded into sequences of synthetic DNA. This technology holds promise for archiving vast amounts of digital data. This pair is correctly matched.

Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR). Statement-I: The introduction of EPR floor pricing under the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is intended to ensure price predictability for recyclers. Statement-II: EPR floor pricing helps in preventing market collapse for EPR certificates and encourages investment in eco-friendly recycling technologies by ensuring fair compensation to authorised recyclers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the primary purposes of introducing EPR floor pricing for EPR certificates is to provide price predictability and stability for authorised e-waste recyclers. This minimum guaranteed price ensures that recyclers have a baseline revenue expectation for the certificates they generate. Statement-II is also correct. By setting a minimum price, EPR floor pricing aims to prevent the value of EPR certificates from collapsing due to market dynamics or undue negotiation power of producers. This assurance of fair compensation incentivises recyclers to invest in better, environmentally sound recycling technologies and infrastructure. It makes the formal recycling sector more economically viable, encouraging its growth and discouraging informal, hazardous practices. Furthermore, Statement-II directly explains why EPR floor pricing leads to price predictability mentioned in Statement-I. Key Initiatives for E-Waste Management: E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022: Mandates Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for manufacturers to ensure safe disposal and recycling. EPR Certificate System: Producers must buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet EPR targets. Digital E-Waste Tracking: Introduction of a centralised portal for traceability of e-waste movement and certification. Public Awareness Campaigns: Emphasis on educating users and incentivising collection via e-stores, kiosks, and take-back policies. EPR Floor Pricing: What Is It? Minimum guaranteed price set for EPR certificates to ensure recyclers receive fair compensation for their work. Key Features (as per E-Waste Rules 2022) Ensures price predictability for recyclers, encouraging formalisation. Prevents market collapse and promotes investment in eco-friendly technology. Aligns with global best practices (e.g., Europe’s high EPR fees for producers). Benefits: Formal sector gains ground over informal processing (which handles 95% of India’s e-waste). Reduces environmental hazards, encourages material recovery (e.g., gold, copper), and improves tax revenue. Helps meet circular economy goals and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the primary purposes of introducing EPR floor pricing for EPR certificates is to provide price predictability and stability for authorised e-waste recyclers. This minimum guaranteed price ensures that recyclers have a baseline revenue expectation for the certificates they generate. Statement-II is also correct. By setting a minimum price, EPR floor pricing aims to prevent the value of EPR certificates from collapsing due to market dynamics or undue negotiation power of producers. This assurance of fair compensation incentivises recyclers to invest in better, environmentally sound recycling technologies and infrastructure. It makes the formal recycling sector more economically viable, encouraging its growth and discouraging informal, hazardous practices. Furthermore, Statement-II directly explains why EPR floor pricing leads to price predictability mentioned in Statement-I. Key Initiatives for E-Waste Management: E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022: Mandates Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for manufacturers to ensure safe disposal and recycling. EPR Certificate System: Producers must buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet EPR targets. Digital E-Waste Tracking: Introduction of a centralised portal for traceability of e-waste movement and certification. Public Awareness Campaigns: Emphasis on educating users and incentivising collection via e-stores, kiosks, and take-back policies. EPR Floor Pricing: What Is It? Minimum guaranteed price set for EPR certificates to ensure recyclers receive fair compensation for their work. Key Features (as per E-Waste Rules 2022) Ensures price predictability for recyclers, encouraging formalisation. Prevents market collapse and promotes investment in eco-friendly technology. Aligns with global best practices (e.g., Europe’s high EPR fees for producers). Benefits: Formal sector gains ground over informal processing (which handles 95% of India’s e-waste). Reduces environmental hazards, encourages material recovery (e.g., gold, copper), and improves tax revenue. Helps meet circular economy goals and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).

Statement-I: The introduction of EPR floor pricing under the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is intended to ensure price predictability for recyclers.

Statement-II: EPR floor pricing helps in preventing market collapse for EPR certificates and encourages investment in eco-friendly recycling technologies by ensuring fair compensation to authorised recyclers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. One of the primary purposes of introducing EPR floor pricing for EPR certificates is to provide price predictability and stability for authorised e-waste recyclers. This minimum guaranteed price ensures that recyclers have a baseline revenue expectation for the certificates they generate.

• Statement-II is also correct. By setting a minimum price, EPR floor pricing aims to prevent the value of EPR certificates from collapsing due to market dynamics or undue negotiation power of producers. This assurance of fair compensation incentivises recyclers to invest in better, environmentally sound recycling technologies and infrastructure. It makes the formal recycling sector more economically viable, encouraging its growth and discouraging informal, hazardous practices.

• Furthermore, Statement-II directly explains why EPR floor pricing leads to price predictability mentioned in Statement-I.

Key Initiatives for E-Waste Management:

• E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022: Mandates Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for manufacturers to ensure safe disposal and recycling.

• EPR Certificate System: Producers must buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet EPR targets.

• Digital E-Waste Tracking: Introduction of a centralised portal for traceability of e-waste movement and certification.

• Public Awareness Campaigns: Emphasis on educating users and incentivising collection via e-stores, kiosks, and take-back policies.

EPR Floor Pricing:

• What Is It?

• Minimum guaranteed price set for EPR certificates to ensure recyclers receive fair compensation for their work.

• Key Features (as per E-Waste Rules 2022)

• Ensures price predictability for recyclers, encouraging formalisation. Prevents market collapse and promotes investment in eco-friendly technology. Aligns with global best practices (e.g., Europe’s high EPR fees for producers).

• Ensures price predictability for recyclers, encouraging formalisation.

• Prevents market collapse and promotes investment in eco-friendly technology.

• Aligns with global best practices (e.g., Europe’s high EPR fees for producers).

• Benefits:

• Formal sector gains ground over informal processing (which handles 95% of India’s e-waste). Reduces environmental hazards, encourages material recovery (e.g., gold, copper), and improves tax revenue. Helps meet circular economy goals and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• Formal sector gains ground over informal processing (which handles 95% of India’s e-waste).

• Reduces environmental hazards, encourages material recovery (e.g., gold, copper), and improves tax revenue.

• Helps meet circular economy goals and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Solution: a)

• Furthermore, Statement-II directly explains why EPR floor pricing leads to price predictability mentioned in Statement-I.

Key Initiatives for E-Waste Management:

• E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022: Mandates Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for manufacturers to ensure safe disposal and recycling.

• EPR Certificate System: Producers must buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet EPR targets.

• Digital E-Waste Tracking: Introduction of a centralised portal for traceability of e-waste movement and certification.

• Public Awareness Campaigns: Emphasis on educating users and incentivising collection via e-stores, kiosks, and take-back policies.

EPR Floor Pricing:

• What Is It?

• Minimum guaranteed price set for EPR certificates to ensure recyclers receive fair compensation for their work.

• Key Features (as per E-Waste Rules 2022)

• Ensures price predictability for recyclers, encouraging formalisation.

• Prevents market collapse and promotes investment in eco-friendly technology.

• Aligns with global best practices (e.g., Europe’s high EPR fees for producers).

• Benefits:

• Formal sector gains ground over informal processing (which handles 95% of India’s e-waste).

• Reduces environmental hazards, encourages material recovery (e.g., gold, copper), and improves tax revenue.

• Helps meet circular economy goals and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following pairs: List-I (Dam on Chambal River) List-II (State where primarily located/benefited) 1. Gandhi Sagar Dam Madhya Pradesh 2. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam Rajasthan 3. Jawahar Sagar Dam Uttar Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in the Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh, forming the initial major dam on the Chambal River. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is situated at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan, downstream of the Gandhi Sagar Dam. It is a significant hydroelectric power project. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is located in Kota district, Rajasthan, not Uttar Pradesh. It is downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and is also part of the Chambal Valley Project, primarily benefiting Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh is a riparian state through which the Chambal flows before meeting the Yamuna, but this specific dam is in Rajasthan. Incorrect Solution: b) Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in the Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh, forming the initial major dam on the Chambal River. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is situated at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan, downstream of the Gandhi Sagar Dam. It is a significant hydroelectric power project. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is located in Kota district, Rajasthan, not Uttar Pradesh. It is downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and is also part of the Chambal Valley Project, primarily benefiting Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh is a riparian state through which the Chambal flows before meeting the Yamuna, but this specific dam is in Rajasthan.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs:

List-I (Dam on Chambal River) | List-II (State where primarily located/benefited)

1.Gandhi Sagar Dam | Madhya Pradesh
2.Rana Pratap Sagar Dam | Rajasthan
3.Jawahar Sagar Dam | Uttar Pradesh

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in the Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh, forming the initial major dam on the Chambal River.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is situated at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan, downstream of the Gandhi Sagar Dam. It is a significant hydroelectric power project.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is located in Kota district, Rajasthan, not Uttar Pradesh. It is downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and is also part of the Chambal Valley Project, primarily benefiting Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh is a riparian state through which the Chambal flows before meeting the Yamuna, but this specific dam is in Rajasthan.

Solution: b)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in the Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh, forming the initial major dam on the Chambal River.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is situated at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan, downstream of the Gandhi Sagar Dam. It is a significant hydroelectric power project.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘MY Bharat’ portal: It was launched on the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The portal primarily focuses on mobilizing youth for participation in international exchange programs. One of its key features is to facilitate mentorship and peer networking opportunities across the country. It operates under the direct administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The ‘MY Bharat’ portal was launched on October 31, 2023, which is celebrated as National Unity Day, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Statement 2 is incorrect. While international exposure might be an indirect outcome, the portal’s primary focus is on youth participation in national development, public welfare, disaster relief, and awareness campaigns within India. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MY Bharat portal is to facilitate access to mentors and peer networks across the country, aiding in holistic youth development. Statement 4 is incorrect. MY Bharat is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not under the direct administrative control of the PMO. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The ‘MY Bharat’ portal was launched on October 31, 2023, which is celebrated as National Unity Day, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Statement 2 is incorrect. While international exposure might be an indirect outcome, the portal’s primary focus is on youth participation in national development, public welfare, disaster relief, and awareness campaigns within India. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MY Bharat portal is to facilitate access to mentors and peer networks across the country, aiding in holistic youth development. Statement 4 is incorrect. MY Bharat is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not under the direct administrative control of the PMO.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘MY Bharat’ portal:

• It was launched on the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

• The portal primarily focuses on mobilizing youth for participation in international exchange programs.

• One of its key features is to facilitate mentorship and peer networking opportunities across the country.

• It operates under the direct administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The ‘MY Bharat’ portal was launched on October 31, 2023, which is celebrated as National Unity Day, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While international exposure might be an indirect outcome, the portal’s primary focus is on youth participation in national development, public welfare, disaster relief, and awareness campaigns within India.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MY Bharat portal is to facilitate access to mentors and peer networks across the country, aiding in holistic youth development.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. MY Bharat is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not under the direct administrative control of the PMO.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The ‘MY Bharat’ portal was launched on October 31, 2023, which is celebrated as National Unity Day, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MY Bharat portal is to facilitate access to mentors and peer networks across the country, aiding in holistic youth development.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. MY Bharat is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not under the direct administrative control of the PMO.

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