UPSC Editorials Quiz : 24 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With respect to the Centre’s exemption policy for thermal plants, consider the following statements: The policy framework was developed based on recommendations from a scientific panel headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India. The primary pollutant targeted by the mandated Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems is Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂). The policy acknowledges the phenomenon of transboundary pollution, where emissions can affect areas far from the source. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued the new norms based on the recommendations of a scientific advisory panel led by the Principal Scientific Adviser. This highlights the scientific basis of the policy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems are specifically designed to reduce Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) emissions. While thermal plants also emit Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), including NO₂, FGD technology is targeted at SO₂. Different technologies are used to control NOx emissions. Statement 3 is correct. The rationale for regulating emissions, even from plants in remote areas, includes the fact that pollutants like SO₂ can lead to transboundary pollution. Emissions can travel over 200 km, impacting both rural and urban areas far from the power plant itself. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued the new norms based on the recommendations of a scientific advisory panel led by the Principal Scientific Adviser. This highlights the scientific basis of the policy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems are specifically designed to reduce Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) emissions. While thermal plants also emit Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), including NO₂, FGD technology is targeted at SO₂. Different technologies are used to control NOx emissions. Statement 3 is correct. The rationale for regulating emissions, even from plants in remote areas, includes the fact that pollutants like SO₂ can lead to transboundary pollution. Emissions can travel over 200 km, impacting both rural and urban areas far from the power plant itself.

#### 1. Question

With respect to the Centre’s exemption policy for thermal plants, consider the following statements:

• The policy framework was developed based on recommendations from a scientific panel headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.

• The primary pollutant targeted by the mandated Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems is Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂).

• The policy acknowledges the phenomenon of transboundary pollution, where emissions can affect areas far from the source.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued the new norms based on the recommendations of a scientific advisory panel led by the Principal Scientific Adviser. This highlights the scientific basis of the policy.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems are specifically designed to reduce Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) emissions. While thermal plants also emit Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), including NO₂, FGD technology is targeted at SO₂. Different technologies are used to control NOx emissions.

Statement 3 is correct. The rationale for regulating emissions, even from plants in remote areas, includes the fact that pollutants like SO₂ can lead to transboundary pollution. Emissions can travel over 200 km, impacting both rural and urban areas far from the power plant itself.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the De-Extinction of the Dire Wolf: De-extinction is a process that relies exclusively on cloning using perfectly preserved somatic cells of an extinct species. The Dire Wolf (Aenocyon dirus) was a close genetic relative of the modern Grey Wolf and shared a common ancestor recently. The scientific rationale behind de-extinction includes restoring ecological balance and conducting research on evolutionary processes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. De-extinction involves a range of advanced biotechnological methods, not just cloning. The process can include gene editing (like CRISPR-Cas9) to modify the genome of a living relative to match that of the extinct species, as well as ancient DNA sequencing and synthetic biology. Cloning requires intact cells, which are rarely available for long-extinct species. Statement 2 is incorrect. For a long time, Dire Wolves were thought to be closely related to Grey Wolves. However, recent genetic studies have revealed that they are a distinct and distant lineage that split from the ancestor of modern wolves millions of years ago. They are not close relatives. Statement 3 is correct. Proponents of de-extinction argue that it has several potential benefits. These include restoring lost biodiversity and ecological functions (e.g., a keystone predator), providing insights into the biology and evolution of extinct species, and developing technologies that could aid in the conservation of currently endangered species. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. De-extinction involves a range of advanced biotechnological methods, not just cloning. The process can include gene editing (like CRISPR-Cas9) to modify the genome of a living relative to match that of the extinct species, as well as ancient DNA sequencing and synthetic biology. Cloning requires intact cells, which are rarely available for long-extinct species. Statement 2 is incorrect. For a long time, Dire Wolves were thought to be closely related to Grey Wolves. However, recent genetic studies have revealed that they are a distinct and distant lineage that split from the ancestor of modern wolves millions of years ago. They are not close relatives. Statement 3 is correct. Proponents of de-extinction argue that it has several potential benefits. These include restoring lost biodiversity and ecological functions (e.g., a keystone predator), providing insights into the biology and evolution of extinct species, and developing technologies that could aid in the conservation of currently endangered species.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the De-Extinction of the Dire Wolf:

• De-extinction is a process that relies exclusively on cloning using perfectly preserved somatic cells of an extinct species.

• The Dire Wolf (Aenocyon dirus) was a close genetic relative of the modern Grey Wolf and shared a common ancestor recently.

• The scientific rationale behind de-extinction includes restoring ecological balance and conducting research on evolutionary processes.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. De-extinction involves a range of advanced biotechnological methods, not just cloning. The process can include gene editing (like CRISPR-Cas9) to modify the genome of a living relative to match that of the extinct species, as well as ancient DNA sequencing and synthetic biology. Cloning requires intact cells, which are rarely available for long-extinct species.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. For a long time, Dire Wolves were thought to be closely related to Grey Wolves. However, recent genetic studies have revealed that they are a distinct and distant lineage that split from the ancestor of modern wolves millions of years ago. They are not close relatives.

• Statement 3 is correct. Proponents of de-extinction argue that it has several potential benefits. These include restoring lost biodiversity and ecological functions (e.g., a keystone predator), providing insights into the biology and evolution of extinct species, and developing technologies that could aid in the conservation of currently endangered species.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following pairs: River : Origin 1. Sutlej : Lake Rakshastal, Tibet 2. Gomti : Gomat Taal, Uttar Pradesh 3. Chenab : Surya Taal, Himachal Pradesh 4. Mahadayi : Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following pairs:

| River | : | Origin

1.| Sutlej | : | Lake Rakshastal, Tibet
2.| Gomti | : | Gomat Taal, Uttar Pradesh
3.| Chenab | : | Surya Taal, Himachal Pradesh
4.| Mahadayi | : | Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve: It is India’s largest conservation reserve, located in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. It serves as a vital wildlife corridor, connecting the Kibber and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuaries. The management of the reserve is vested exclusively with the State Forest Department, with no role for local communities. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. At 1,585 sq km, the recently notified Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve is the largest conservation reserve in India. It is located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region of Spiti, Himachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of establishing this reserve is to secure a critical wildlife corridor for species like the snow leopard. It provides connectivity between the existing protected areas of Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuary, ensuring genetic flow and larger habitat access for fauna. Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of Conservation Reserves, as defined under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the active involvement of local communities. The Tsarap Chu reserve is to be managed by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee, which explicitly includes representatives from local panchayats and other stakeholders, ensuring community participation in conservation efforts. Management is not exclusive to the Forest Department. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. At 1,585 sq km, the recently notified Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve is the largest conservation reserve in India. It is located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region of Spiti, Himachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of establishing this reserve is to secure a critical wildlife corridor for species like the snow leopard. It provides connectivity between the existing protected areas of Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuary, ensuring genetic flow and larger habitat access for fauna. Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of Conservation Reserves, as defined under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the active involvement of local communities. The Tsarap Chu reserve is to be managed by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee, which explicitly includes representatives from local panchayats and other stakeholders, ensuring community participation in conservation efforts. Management is not exclusive to the Forest Department.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve:

• It is India’s largest conservation reserve, located in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh.

• It serves as a vital wildlife corridor, connecting the Kibber and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuaries.

• The management of the reserve is vested exclusively with the State Forest Department, with no role for local communities.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. At 1,585 sq km, the recently notified Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve is the largest conservation reserve in India. It is located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region of Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of establishing this reserve is to secure a critical wildlife corridor for species like the snow leopard. It provides connectivity between the existing protected areas of Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuary, ensuring genetic flow and larger habitat access for fauna.

Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of Conservation Reserves, as defined under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the active involvement of local communities. The Tsarap Chu reserve is to be managed by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee, which explicitly includes representatives from local panchayats and other stakeholders, ensuring community participation in conservation efforts. Management is not exclusive to the Forest Department.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The recent simplification of building codes in India is a fundamental step towards enhancing national earthquake resilience. Statement-II: Simplified building codes ensure wider adoption and compliance, particularly in smaller towns and rural areas, leading to the construction of more seismically resistant structures. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Earthquake resilience is fundamentally about the capacity of infrastructure to withstand seismic events. Statement-I correctly posits that simplifying building codes is a crucial measure for improving this resilience. The core challenge in a vast country like India is not just the existence of advanced codes, but their enforceability and practical application on the ground. Statement-II provides the precise reason why simplification helps: it lowers the barrier to compliance. Complex, technical codes are often difficult for local contractors and builders in smaller urban and semi-urban areas to understand and implement, leading to non-compliance. By reducing this complexity, the 2021 codes aim for wider adoption, ensuring that a larger number of new constructions incorporate essential seismic safety features. This direct link between simplification, improved compliance, and safer buildings makes Statement-II the correct and logical explanation for the assertion in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Earthquake resilience is fundamentally about the capacity of infrastructure to withstand seismic events. Statement-I correctly posits that simplifying building codes is a crucial measure for improving this resilience. The core challenge in a vast country like India is not just the existence of advanced codes, but their enforceability and practical application on the ground. Statement-II provides the precise reason why simplification helps: it lowers the barrier to compliance. Complex, technical codes are often difficult for local contractors and builders in smaller urban and semi-urban areas to understand and implement, leading to non-compliance. By reducing this complexity, the 2021 codes aim for wider adoption, ensuring that a larger number of new constructions incorporate essential seismic safety features. This direct link between simplification, improved compliance, and safer buildings makes Statement-II the correct and logical explanation for the assertion in Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The recent simplification of building codes in India is a fundamental step towards enhancing national earthquake resilience.

Statement-II: Simplified building codes ensure wider adoption and compliance, particularly in smaller towns and rural areas, leading to the construction of more seismically resistant structures.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Earthquake resilience is fundamentally about the capacity of infrastructure to withstand seismic events.

• Statement-I correctly posits that simplifying building codes is a crucial measure for improving this resilience. The core challenge in a vast country like India is not just the existence of advanced codes, but their enforceability and practical application on the ground.

• Statement-II provides the precise reason why simplification helps: it lowers the barrier to compliance. Complex, technical codes are often difficult for local contractors and builders in smaller urban and semi-urban areas to understand and implement, leading to non-compliance. By reducing this complexity, the 2021 codes aim for wider adoption, ensuring that a larger number of new constructions incorporate essential seismic safety features.

This direct link between simplification, improved compliance, and safer buildings makes Statement-II the correct and logical explanation for the assertion in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Earthquake resilience is fundamentally about the capacity of infrastructure to withstand seismic events.

This direct link between simplification, improved compliance, and safer buildings makes Statement-II the correct and logical explanation for the assertion in Statement-I.

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