UPSC Editorials Quiz : 24 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988: Statement I: Section 17A of the Act mandates that no police officer shall conduct any enquiry or investigation into an offense alleged to have been committed by a public servant in the discharge of official functions without the prior approval of the competent authority. Statement II: The legislative intent behind the insertion of Section 17A was to prevent “policy paralysis” by protecting honest public servants from frivolous and politically motivated investigations for bona fide decisions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is Correct:Section 17A, introduced by the 2018 Amendment, explicitly bars enquiry/investigation without “previous approval” of the competent authority for decisions taken in discharge of official functions. Statement II is Correct:The justification for this amendment was precisely to address “policy paralysis.” The fear was that without such protection, civil servants would adopt a “play-it-safe” syndrome, refusing to take bold decisions due to fear of harassment. Statement II explains whyStatement I exists. The protection (I) is the mechanism to achieve the goal of preventing policy paralysis (II). Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is Correct:Section 17A, introduced by the 2018 Amendment, explicitly bars enquiry/investigation without “previous approval” of the competent authority for decisions taken in discharge of official functions. Statement II is Correct:The justification for this amendment was precisely to address “policy paralysis.” The fear was that without such protection, civil servants would adopt a “play-it-safe” syndrome, refusing to take bold decisions due to fear of harassment. Statement II explains whyStatement I exists. The protection (I) is the mechanism to achieve the goal of preventing policy paralysis (II).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988:

Statement I: Section 17A of the Act mandates that no police officer shall conduct any enquiry or investigation into an offense alleged to have been committed by a public servant in the discharge of official functions without the prior approval of the competent authority.

Statement II: The legislative intent behind the insertion of Section 17A was to prevent “policy paralysis” by protecting honest public servants from frivolous and politically motivated investigations for bona fide decisions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct:Section 17A, introduced by the 2018 Amendment, explicitly bars enquiry/investigation without “previous approval” of the competent authority for decisions taken in discharge of official functions.

• Statement II is Correct:The justification for this amendment was precisely to address “policy paralysis.” The fear was that without such protection, civil servants would adopt a “play-it-safe” syndrome, refusing to take bold decisions due to fear of harassment.

• Statement II explains whyStatement I exists. The protection (I) is the mechanism to achieve the goal of preventing policy paralysis (II).

Solution: A

• Statement II explains whyStatement I exists. The protection (I) is the mechanism to achieve the goal of preventing policy paralysis (II).

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to the regulation of digital content in India, match the following provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 with their respective subject matters: Provision Subject Matter 1. Section 66E A. Punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form. 2. Section 67 B. Punishment for violation of privacy (capturing/publishing private images of private areas without consent). 3. Section 67B C. Punishment for publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Correct Solution: A Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000 specifically addresses the issue of violation of privacy in the digital space. It penalises the intentional capturing, publishing, or transmission of images of a person’s private areas without consent, reflecting legislative concern over voyeurism and non-consensual dissemination of intimate content. Section 67, on the other hand, deals broadly with obscene material in electronic form, covering the publication or transmission of content that is lascivious or appeals to prurient interests, irrespective of the age of persons depicted. Section 67B is a more specialised and stringent provision that focuses exclusively on child sexual abuse material (CSAM), criminalising the creation, browsing, downloading, or circulation of material depicting children in sexually explicit acts. Incorrect Solution: A Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000 specifically addresses the issue of violation of privacy in the digital space. It penalises the intentional capturing, publishing, or transmission of images of a person’s private areas without consent, reflecting legislative concern over voyeurism and non-consensual dissemination of intimate content. Section 67, on the other hand, deals broadly with obscene material in electronic form, covering the publication or transmission of content that is lascivious or appeals to prurient interests, irrespective of the age of persons depicted. Section 67B is a more specialised and stringent provision that focuses exclusively on child sexual abuse material (CSAM), criminalising the creation, browsing, downloading, or circulation of material depicting children in sexually explicit acts.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the regulation of digital content in India, match the following provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 with their respective subject matters:

Provision | Subject Matter

1.Section 66E | A. Punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form.
2.Section 67 | B. Punishment for violation of privacy (capturing/publishing private images of private areas without consent).
3.Section 67B | C. Punishment for publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

• (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C

• (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B

• (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Solution: A

• Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000 specifically addresses the issue of violation of privacy in the digital space. It penalises the intentional capturing, publishing, or transmission of images of a person’s private areas without consent, reflecting legislative concern over voyeurism and non-consensual dissemination of intimate content.

• Section 67, on the other hand, deals broadly with obscene material in electronic form, covering the publication or transmission of content that is lascivious or appeals to prurient interests, irrespective of the age of persons depicted.

• Section 67B is a more specialised and stringent provision that focuses exclusively on child sexual abuse material (CSAM), criminalising the creation, browsing, downloading, or circulation of material depicting children in sexually explicit acts.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The Indian Rupee recently depreciated to a historic low against the US Dollar. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the primary driver of this specific depreciation event? A sudden collapse in India’s domestic banking sector caused a flight of capital. The depreciation was primarily driven by global risk aversion due to geopolitical tensions and a strengthening US Dollar, rather than domestic economic failure. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) officially devalued the currency to boost export competitiveness. Select the correct answer using the core given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) None of the above Correct Solution: B The recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee to a historic low against the US Dollar has to be understood in the context of global macroeconomic and financial conditions rather than domestic systemic failure. Statement 1 is incorrect because there was no sudden collapse or crisis in India’s banking sector; Indian banks remain broadly stable with improved balance sheets compared to earlier stress periods. Statement 3 is also incorrect, as India follows a market-determined exchange rate regime, and the Reserve Bank of India does not officially devalue the currency. Instead, the RBI intervenes only to curb excessive volatility, not to target a specific exchange rate for export promotion. Statement 2 correctly captures the core driver: heightened global risk aversion due to geopolitical tensions, tighter US monetary policy, and strong US economic performance have led to capital flows towards the US Dollar, causing broad-based depreciation across emerging market currencies, including the Rupee. Incorrect Solution: B The recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee to a historic low against the US Dollar has to be understood in the context of global macroeconomic and financial conditions rather than domestic systemic failure. Statement 1 is incorrect because there was no sudden collapse or crisis in India’s banking sector; Indian banks remain broadly stable with improved balance sheets compared to earlier stress periods. Statement 3 is also incorrect, as India follows a market-determined exchange rate regime, and the Reserve Bank of India does not officially devalue the currency. Instead, the RBI intervenes only to curb excessive volatility, not to target a specific exchange rate for export promotion. Statement 2 correctly captures the core driver: heightened global risk aversion due to geopolitical tensions, tighter US monetary policy, and strong US economic performance have led to capital flows towards the US Dollar, causing broad-based depreciation across emerging market currencies, including the Rupee.

#### 3. Question

The Indian Rupee recently depreciated to a historic low against the US Dollar. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the primary driver of this specific depreciation event?

• A sudden collapse in India’s domestic banking sector caused a flight of capital.

• The depreciation was primarily driven by global risk aversion due to geopolitical tensions and a strengthening US Dollar, rather than domestic economic failure.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) officially devalued the currency to boost export competitiveness.

Select the correct answer using the core given below

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) None of the above

Solution: B

• The recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee to a historic low against the US Dollar has to be understood in the context of global macroeconomic and financial conditions rather than domestic systemic failure.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because there was no sudden collapse or crisis in India’s banking sector; Indian banks remain broadly stable with improved balance sheets compared to earlier stress periods.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect, as India follows a market-determined exchange rate regime, and the Reserve Bank of India does not officially devalue the currency. Instead, the RBI intervenes only to curb excessive volatility, not to target a specific exchange rate for export promotion.

• Statement 2 correctly captures the core driver: heightened global risk aversion due to geopolitical tensions, tighter US monetary policy, and strong US economic performance have led to capital flows towards the US Dollar, causing broad-based depreciation across emerging market currencies, including the Rupee.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the “Special Intensive Revision” (SIR) of electoral rolls: Statement I: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is empowered to order a Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in a specific state without the prior concurrence of the State Government. Statement II: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls are vested in the Election Commission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is Correct:The ECI has the power to order revisions, including the rigorous SIR, if it deems the rolls defective. It does not require the state’s permission, although it uses the state’s machinery (officers) to conduct it. Statement II is Correct:Article 324 explicitly vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections (including the preparation of rolls) in the ECI. It is becauseof the plenary powers granted by Article 324 (Statement II) that the ECI can order an SIR without state concurrence (Statement I). Thus, Statement II explains Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is Correct:The ECI has the power to order revisions, including the rigorous SIR, if it deems the rolls defective. It does not require the state’s permission, although it uses the state’s machinery (officers) to conduct it. Statement II is Correct:Article 324 explicitly vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections (including the preparation of rolls) in the ECI. It is becauseof the plenary powers granted by Article 324 (Statement II) that the ECI can order an SIR without state concurrence (Statement I). Thus, Statement II explains Statement I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Special Intensive Revision” (SIR) of electoral rolls:

Statement I: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is empowered to order a Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in a specific state without the prior concurrence of the State Government.

Statement II: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls are vested in the Election Commission.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct:The ECI has the power to order revisions, including the rigorous SIR, if it deems the rolls defective. It does not require the state’s permission, although it uses the state’s machinery (officers) to conduct it.

• Statement II is Correct:Article 324 explicitly vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections (including the preparation of rolls) in the ECI.

• It is becauseof the plenary powers granted by Article 324 (Statement II) that the ECI can order an SIR without state concurrence (Statement I). Thus, Statement II explains Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement II is Correct:Article 324 explicitly vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections (including the preparation of rolls) in the ECI.

• It is becauseof the plenary powers granted by Article 324 (Statement II) that the ECI can order an SIR without state concurrence (Statement I). Thus, Statement II explains Statement I.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question The term ‘MUNI-RISK’, recently seen in news in the context of the Baltic Sea, refers to: (a) A NATO-led naval exercise to secure critical undersea gas pipelines. (b) A project focused on mitigating risks from discarded submerged munitions and chemical weapons. (c) A new invasive species of jellyfish threatening the fisheries of the Scandinavian coast. (d) A European Union directive to ban bottom trawling in the Baltic Marine Protected Areas. Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct: MUNI-RISK is an environmental safety project funded by the European Maritime, Fisheries and Aquaculture Fund (EMFAF). It specifically addresses the environmental and safety hazards posed by dumped munitions (from World War II) on the seabed of the Baltic Sea. These munitions leak toxic chemicals, threatening marine life and human activities. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct: MUNI-RISK is an environmental safety project funded by the European Maritime, Fisheries and Aquaculture Fund (EMFAF). It specifically addresses the environmental and safety hazards posed by dumped munitions (from World War II) on the seabed of the Baltic Sea. These munitions leak toxic chemicals, threatening marine life and human activities.

#### 5. Question

The term ‘MUNI-RISK’, recently seen in news in the context of the Baltic Sea, refers to:

• (a) A NATO-led naval exercise to secure critical undersea gas pipelines.

• (b) A project focused on mitigating risks from discarded submerged munitions and chemical weapons.

• (c) A new invasive species of jellyfish threatening the fisheries of the Scandinavian coast.

• (d) A European Union directive to ban bottom trawling in the Baltic Marine Protected Areas.

Solution: B

• Option (b) is correct: MUNI-RISK is an environmental safety project funded by the European Maritime, Fisheries and Aquaculture Fund (EMFAF). It specifically addresses the environmental and safety hazards posed by dumped munitions (from World War II) on the seabed of the Baltic Sea. These munitions leak toxic chemicals, threatening marine life and human activities.

Solution: B

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