UPSC Editorials Quiz : 24 December 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023’: It replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. It mandates that a judgment in a criminal case must be delivered within 45 days of the conclusion of the trial. It introduces the concept of ‘community service’ as a form of punishment for petty offences. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) has been enacted to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 as part of the comprehensive overhaul of colonial-era criminal laws, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA). Statement 2 is incorrect. BNSS does introduce strict timelines for delivery of judgments to address judicial delays, but it does not mandate a rigid 45-day limit. Instead, it provides that judgments should ordinarily be delivered within 30 days of completion of arguments, with a maximum extension up to 60 days for recorded reasons. Statement 3 is correct. BNSS formally introduces ‘community service’ as a punishment for certain petty offences, marking a shift towards reformative and restorative justice. This provision aims to reduce overcrowding of prisons, avoid unnecessary incarceration, and promote social accountability for minor offences. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) has been enacted to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 as part of the comprehensive overhaul of colonial-era criminal laws, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA). Statement 2 is incorrect. BNSS does introduce strict timelines for delivery of judgments to address judicial delays, but it does not mandate a rigid 45-day limit. Instead, it provides that judgments should ordinarily be delivered within 30 days of completion of arguments, with a maximum extension up to 60 days for recorded reasons. Statement 3 is correct. BNSS formally introduces ‘community service’ as a punishment for certain petty offences, marking a shift towards reformative and restorative justice. This provision aims to reduce overcrowding of prisons, avoid unnecessary incarceration, and promote social accountability for minor offences.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023’:

• It replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.

• It mandates that a judgment in a criminal case must be delivered within 45 days of the conclusion of the trial.

• It introduces the concept of ‘community service’ as a form of punishment for petty offences.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) has been enacted to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 as part of the comprehensive overhaul of colonial-era criminal laws, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. BNSS does introduce strict timelines for delivery of judgments to address judicial delays, but it does not mandate a rigid 45-day limit. Instead, it provides that judgments should ordinarily be delivered within 30 days of completion of arguments, with a maximum extension up to 60 days for recorded reasons.

• Statement 3 is correct. BNSS formally introduces ‘community service’ as a punishment for certain petty offences, marking a shift towards reformative and restorative justice. This provision aims to reduce overcrowding of prisons, avoid unnecessary incarceration, and promote social accountability for minor offences.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding India Meteorological Department (IMD): IMD operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It is the only Indian agency responsible for satellite-based weather data collection. IMD provides real-time weather data to various sectors, including aviation and shipping. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The India Meteorological Department functions as an attached office under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Ministry provides the policy, administrative, and scientific framework within which IMD carries out its mandate related to weather forecasting, climate services, seismology, and related observational networks. Statement 2 is incorrect. IMD is not the only Indian agency responsible for satellite-based weather data collection. Satellite meteorology in India is primarily enabled by the Indian Space Research Organisation, which designs, launches, and operates meteorological and earth-observation satellites such as INSAT and SCATSAT. IMD is a major user and interpreter of this satellite data, but it does not independently own or operate the satellite infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. IMD disseminates real-time and near–real-time weather information to critical sectors such as civil aviation, maritime shipping, disaster management authorities, agriculture, and power utilities. These services include cyclone warnings, aviation route forecasts, port warnings, and nowcasts, which are essential for operational safety and economic planning. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The India Meteorological Department functions as an attached office under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Ministry provides the policy, administrative, and scientific framework within which IMD carries out its mandate related to weather forecasting, climate services, seismology, and related observational networks. Statement 2 is incorrect. IMD is not the only Indian agency responsible for satellite-based weather data collection. Satellite meteorology in India is primarily enabled by the Indian Space Research Organisation, which designs, launches, and operates meteorological and earth-observation satellites such as INSAT and SCATSAT. IMD is a major user and interpreter of this satellite data, but it does not independently own or operate the satellite infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. IMD disseminates real-time and near–real-time weather information to critical sectors such as civil aviation, maritime shipping, disaster management authorities, agriculture, and power utilities. These services include cyclone warnings, aviation route forecasts, port warnings, and nowcasts, which are essential for operational safety and economic planning.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India Meteorological Department (IMD):

• IMD operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

• It is the only Indian agency responsible for satellite-based weather data collection.

• IMD provides real-time weather data to various sectors, including aviation and shipping.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The India Meteorological Department functions as an attached office under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Ministry provides the policy, administrative, and scientific framework within which IMD carries out its mandate related to weather forecasting, climate services, seismology, and related observational networks.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. IMD is not the only Indian agency responsible for satellite-based weather data collection. Satellite meteorology in India is primarily enabled by the Indian Space Research Organisation, which designs, launches, and operates meteorological and earth-observation satellites such as INSAT and SCATSAT. IMD is a major user and interpreter of this satellite data, but it does not independently own or operate the satellite infrastructure.

• Statement 3 is correct. IMD disseminates real-time and near–real-time weather information to critical sectors such as civil aviation, maritime shipping, disaster management authorities, agriculture, and power utilities. These services include cyclone warnings, aviation route forecasts, port warnings, and nowcasts, which are essential for operational safety and economic planning.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC): To promote research in nuclear science for peaceful purposes. To regulate the disposal of nuclear waste in India. To oversee the development of nuclear power plants. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A The Atomic Energy Commission was constituted in 1948 under the Atomic Energy Act to frame and implement India’s nuclear policy, particularly in relation to the peaceful uses of atomic energy and the strategic direction of the nuclear sector. Statement 1 is correct. One of the core objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission is to promote and guide research and development in nuclear science and technology for peaceful purposes. This includes advancing nuclear physics, reactor technology, radiation applications in medicine and agriculture, and supporting long-term scientific capability through institutions such as BARC and other DAE laboratories. Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulation of nuclear waste disposal and radiation safety does not fall directly under the Atomic Energy Commission. This function is performed by the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), which is responsible for laying down safety standards, regulating radioactive waste management, and ensuring environmental and public safety. The AEC provides policy direction but does not act as the operational regulator. Statement 3 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission oversees the overall development of nuclear power in India at the policy and strategic level. It guides reactor development, expansion of nuclear power capacity, fuel cycle policy, and international cooperation, while implementation is carried out by executive bodies like the Department of Atomic Energy and NPCIL. Incorrect Solution: A The Atomic Energy Commission was constituted in 1948 under the Atomic Energy Act to frame and implement India’s nuclear policy, particularly in relation to the peaceful uses of atomic energy and the strategic direction of the nuclear sector. Statement 1 is correct. One of the core objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission is to promote and guide research and development in nuclear science and technology for peaceful purposes. This includes advancing nuclear physics, reactor technology, radiation applications in medicine and agriculture, and supporting long-term scientific capability through institutions such as BARC and other DAE laboratories. Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulation of nuclear waste disposal and radiation safety does not fall directly under the Atomic Energy Commission. This function is performed by the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), which is responsible for laying down safety standards, regulating radioactive waste management, and ensuring environmental and public safety. The AEC provides policy direction but does not act as the operational regulator. Statement 3 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission oversees the overall development of nuclear power in India at the policy and strategic level. It guides reactor development, expansion of nuclear power capacity, fuel cycle policy, and international cooperation, while implementation is carried out by executive bodies like the Department of Atomic Energy and NPCIL.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC):

• To promote research in nuclear science for peaceful purposes.

• To regulate the disposal of nuclear waste in India.

• To oversee the development of nuclear power plants.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

• The Atomic Energy Commission was constituted in 1948 under the Atomic Energy Act to frame and implement India’s nuclear policy, particularly in relation to the peaceful uses of atomic energy and the strategic direction of the nuclear sector.

• Statement 1 is correct. One of the core objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission is to promote and guide research and development in nuclear science and technology for peaceful purposes. This includes advancing nuclear physics, reactor technology, radiation applications in medicine and agriculture, and supporting long-term scientific capability through institutions such as BARC and other DAE laboratories.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulation of nuclear waste disposal and radiation safety does not fall directly under the Atomic Energy Commission. This function is performed by the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), which is responsible for laying down safety standards, regulating radioactive waste management, and ensuring environmental and public safety. The AEC provides policy direction but does not act as the operational regulator.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission oversees the overall development of nuclear power in India at the policy and strategic level. It guides reactor development, expansion of nuclear power capacity, fuel cycle policy, and international cooperation, while implementation is carried out by executive bodies like the Department of Atomic Energy and NPCIL.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Entity List: It applies only to entities involved in nuclear or defense technologies. Entities can be added to the list for activities counter to U.S. foreign policy. Inclusion in the list requires congressional approval. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the Entity List applies to various sectors, including AI, semiconductors, and more. Statement 2 is correct as activities counter to U.S. foreign policy can lead to inclusion. Statement 3 is incorrect because inclusion is determined administratively by the Bureau of Industry and Security, not Congress. The United States recently removed three Indian nuclear entities Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre (IGCAR), and Indian Rare Earths (IRE) from its restrictive Entity List. About Entity List: What is the Entity List? The Entity Listis published by the U.S. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) and includes foreign entities—businesses, institutions, or organizations—subject to stringent licensing requirements for the export, re-export, or transfer of specified items. Entities are listed if they are suspected of engaging in activities against U.S. national securityor foreign policy interests. Impact of Listing: Stringent Licensing Requirements:Entities must secure individual licenses for any export or transaction involving U.S. goods and technologies. Hindered International Cooperation:Being on the list complicates access to advanced technologies and partnerships. Economic and Strategic Limitations:Limits participation in global supply chains, especially in high-tech sectors. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the Entity List applies to various sectors, including AI, semiconductors, and more. Statement 2 is correct as activities counter to U.S. foreign policy can lead to inclusion. Statement 3 is incorrect because inclusion is determined administratively by the Bureau of Industry and Security, not Congress. The United States recently removed three Indian nuclear entities Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre (IGCAR), and Indian Rare Earths (IRE) from its restrictive Entity List. About Entity List: What is the Entity List? The Entity Listis published by the U.S. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) and includes foreign entities—businesses, institutions, or organizations—subject to stringent licensing requirements for the export, re-export, or transfer of specified items. Entities are listed if they are suspected of engaging in activities against U.S. national securityor foreign policy interests. Impact of Listing: Stringent Licensing Requirements:Entities must secure individual licenses for any export or transaction involving U.S. goods and technologies. Hindered International Cooperation:Being on the list complicates access to advanced technologies and partnerships. Economic and Strategic Limitations:Limits participation in global supply chains, especially in high-tech sectors.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Entity List:

• It applies only to entities involved in nuclear or defense technologies.

• Entities can be added to the list for activities counter to U.S. foreign policy.

• Inclusion in the list requires congressional approval.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Entity List applies to various sectors, including AI, semiconductors, and more.

Statement 2 is correct as activities counter to U.S. foreign policy can lead to inclusion.

Statement 3 is incorrect because inclusion is determined administratively by the Bureau of Industry and Security, not Congress.

The United States recently removed three Indian nuclear entities Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre (IGCAR), and Indian Rare Earths (IRE) from its restrictive Entity List.

About Entity List:

• What is the Entity List? The Entity Listis published by the U.S. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) and includes foreign entities—businesses, institutions, or organizations—subject to stringent licensing requirements for the export, re-export, or transfer of specified items. Entities are listed if they are suspected of engaging in activities against U.S. national securityor foreign policy interests.

• The Entity Listis published by the U.S. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) and includes foreign entities—businesses, institutions, or organizations—subject to stringent licensing requirements for the export, re-export, or transfer of specified items.

• Entities are listed if they are suspected of engaging in activities against U.S. national securityor foreign policy interests.

• Impact of Listing: Stringent Licensing Requirements:Entities must secure individual licenses for any export or transaction involving U.S. goods and technologies. Hindered International Cooperation:Being on the list complicates access to advanced technologies and partnerships. Economic and Strategic Limitations:Limits participation in global supply chains, especially in high-tech sectors.

• Stringent Licensing Requirements:Entities must secure individual licenses for any export or transaction involving U.S. goods and technologies.

• Hindered International Cooperation:Being on the list complicates access to advanced technologies and partnerships.

• Economic and Strategic Limitations:Limits participation in global supply chains, especially in high-tech sectors.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Entity List applies to various sectors, including AI, semiconductors, and more.

Statement 2 is correct as activities counter to U.S. foreign policy can lead to inclusion.

Statement 3 is incorrect because inclusion is determined administratively by the Bureau of Industry and Security, not Congress.

About Entity List:

• Entities are listed if they are suspected of engaging in activities against U.S. national securityor foreign policy interests.

• Stringent Licensing Requirements:Entities must secure individual licenses for any export or transaction involving U.S. goods and technologies.

• Hindered International Cooperation:Being on the list complicates access to advanced technologies and partnerships.

• Economic and Strategic Limitations:Limits participation in global supply chains, especially in high-tech sectors.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement: It allowed the free movement of goods and people across the border without restrictions. It mandated the construction of permanent fencing along the entire border. It resolved the dispute over the Tin Bigha Corridor. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C The agreement did not allow unrestricted movement, mandate fencing, or address the Tin Bigha Corridor dispute (resolved later in 2011). About 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement: What it is: A bilateral guideline for border management to maintain peace and avoid disputes. Key Features: Prohibits constructing defense structures within 150 yards of the international border. Encourages bilateral discussions for border issues, ensuring mutual respect and cooperation. Why Disputed: Fencing Definition: India does not consider wire fencing a defense structure, while Bangladesh does. Security Concerns: High incidents of cattle smuggling, human trafficking, and illegal immigration necessitate fencing, which Bangladesh views as a disruption to local livelihoods. Smart Fencing Opposition: Bangladesh opposes smart fences with CCTV and electronic surveillance near the border, citing privacy concerns. Status of Fencing: Total Fenced: 3,141 km of the 4,156 km border (Ministry of Home Affairs, 2023). Pending Issues: Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays. Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts. Incorrect Solution: C The agreement did not allow unrestricted movement, mandate fencing, or address the Tin Bigha Corridor dispute (resolved later in 2011). About 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement: What it is: A bilateral guideline for border management to maintain peace and avoid disputes. Key Features: Prohibits constructing defense structures within 150 yards of the international border. Encourages bilateral discussions for border issues, ensuring mutual respect and cooperation. Why Disputed: Fencing Definition: India does not consider wire fencing a defense structure, while Bangladesh does. Security Concerns: High incidents of cattle smuggling, human trafficking, and illegal immigration necessitate fencing, which Bangladesh views as a disruption to local livelihoods. Smart Fencing Opposition: Bangladesh opposes smart fences with CCTV and electronic surveillance near the border, citing privacy concerns. Status of Fencing: Total Fenced: 3,141 km of the 4,156 km border (Ministry of Home Affairs, 2023). Pending Issues: Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays. Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement:

• It allowed the free movement of goods and people across the border without restrictions.

• It mandated the construction of permanent fencing along the entire border.

• It resolved the dispute over the Tin Bigha Corridor.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

The agreement did not allow unrestricted movement, mandate fencing, or address the Tin Bigha Corridor dispute (resolved later in 2011).

About 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement:

• What it is: A bilateral guideline for border management to maintain peace and avoid disputes.

• Key Features: Prohibits constructing defense structures within 150 yards of the international border. Encourages bilateral discussions for border issues, ensuring mutual respect and cooperation.

• Prohibits constructing defense structures within 150 yards of the international border.

• Encourages bilateral discussions for border issues, ensuring mutual respect and cooperation.

Why Disputed:

• Fencing Definition: India does not consider wire fencing a defense structure, while Bangladesh does.

• Security Concerns: High incidents of cattle smuggling, human trafficking, and illegal immigration necessitate fencing, which Bangladesh views as a disruption to local livelihoods.

• Smart Fencing Opposition: Bangladesh opposes smart fences with CCTV and electronic surveillance near the border, citing privacy concerns.

Status of Fencing:

• Total Fenced: 3,141 km of the 4,156 km border (Ministry of Home Affairs, 2023).

• Pending Issues: Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays. Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts.

• Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays.

• Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts.

Solution: C

The agreement did not allow unrestricted movement, mandate fencing, or address the Tin Bigha Corridor dispute (resolved later in 2011).

About 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement:

• What it is: A bilateral guideline for border management to maintain peace and avoid disputes.

• Prohibits constructing defense structures within 150 yards of the international border.

• Encourages bilateral discussions for border issues, ensuring mutual respect and cooperation.

Why Disputed:

• Fencing Definition: India does not consider wire fencing a defense structure, while Bangladesh does.

• Security Concerns: High incidents of cattle smuggling, human trafficking, and illegal immigration necessitate fencing, which Bangladesh views as a disruption to local livelihoods.

• Smart Fencing Opposition: Bangladesh opposes smart fences with CCTV and electronic surveillance near the border, citing privacy concerns.

Status of Fencing:

• Total Fenced: 3,141 km of the 4,156 km border (Ministry of Home Affairs, 2023).

• Pending Issues: Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays. Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts.

• Non-cooperation from local authorities in West Bengal and land acquisition delays.

• Difficult terrain, including 900 km of riverine border, complicates fencing efforts.

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