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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 23 September 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following in the context of recent GI tag applications and geo-heritage sites: Item/Site State Primary Characteristic 1. Amritsari Kulcha Punjab Hand-knotted tandoori flatbread 2. Bhadohi Carpet Uttar Pradesh Indo-Persian floral motifs 3. Erra Matti Dibbalu Telangana Quaternary Age red sand dunes How many of the above triplets are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Triplet 1 is incorrect. While Amritsari Kulcha is from Punjab, it is a stuffed, flaky tandoori flatbread. The term “hand-knotted” is characteristic of carpets (like those from Bhadohi), not flatbreads. Triplet 2 is correct. The Bhadohi-Mirzapur belt is in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for its handmade carpets. A significant feature of these carpets, stemming from their Mughal-era origins, is the use of intricate Indo-Persian designs, which often include floral motifs. Triplet 3 is incorrect. The Erra Matti Dibbalu, the Quaternary Age red sand dunes, are located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana. Incorrect Solution: A Triplet 1 is incorrect. While Amritsari Kulcha is from Punjab, it is a stuffed, flaky tandoori flatbread. The term “hand-knotted” is characteristic of carpets (like those from Bhadohi), not flatbreads. Triplet 2 is correct. The Bhadohi-Mirzapur belt is in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for its handmade carpets. A significant feature of these carpets, stemming from their Mughal-era origins, is the use of intricate Indo-Persian designs, which often include floral motifs. Triplet 3 is incorrect. The Erra Matti Dibbalu, the Quaternary Age red sand dunes, are located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following in the context of recent GI tag applications and geo-heritage sites:

| Item/Site | State | Primary Characteristic

  1. 1.| Amritsari Kulcha | Punjab | Hand-knotted tandoori flatbread
  2. 2.| Bhadohi Carpet | Uttar Pradesh | Indo-Persian floral motifs
  3. 3.| Erra Matti Dibbalu | Telangana | Quaternary Age red sand dunes

How many of the above triplets are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Triplet 1 is incorrect. While Amritsari Kulcha is from Punjab, it is a stuffed, flaky tandoori flatbread. The term “hand-knotted” is characteristic of carpets (like those from Bhadohi), not flatbreads.

Triplet 2 is correct. The Bhadohi-Mirzapur belt is in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for its handmade carpets. A significant feature of these carpets, stemming from their Mughal-era origins, is the use of intricate Indo-Persian designs, which often include floral motifs.

Triplet 3 is incorrect. The Erra Matti Dibbalu, the Quaternary Age red sand dunes, are located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana.

Solution: A

Triplet 1 is incorrect. While Amritsari Kulcha is from Punjab, it is a stuffed, flaky tandoori flatbread. The term “hand-knotted” is characteristic of carpets (like those from Bhadohi), not flatbreads.

Triplet 2 is correct. The Bhadohi-Mirzapur belt is in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for its handmade carpets. A significant feature of these carpets, stemming from their Mughal-era origins, is the use of intricate Indo-Persian designs, which often include floral motifs.

Triplet 3 is incorrect. The Erra Matti Dibbalu, the Quaternary Age red sand dunes, are located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’: It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). The campaign focuses exclusively on non-communicable diseases (NCDs) and cancer screening for women. The activities of this campaign are integrated with the Poshan Maah 2025. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ is a comprehensive health initiative that represents a significant step towards addressing the health and nutritional needs of women and children in India. Statement 1 is correct. This campaign is a collaborative effort, jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). This “whole-of-government” approach ensures that the expertise and resources of both ministries are leveraged effectively to achieve the campaign’s objectives. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s scope is much broader than just NCDs and cancer screening. While it does include screening for these conditions, it also encompasses a wide range of other health and wellness aspects. These include addressing tuberculosis (TB), anaemia, and sickle cell disease, as well as promoting nutrition awareness, menstrual hygiene, healthy lifestyles, and mental well-being. Statement 3 is correct. The campaign is strategically integrated with the activities of Poshan Maah 2025. This integration allows for a synergistic approach, combining health check-ups and screenings with nutrition-focused activities like Annaprashan ceremonies, recipe demonstrations, and awareness campaigns on healthy eating habits. This holistic approach aims to create a greater impact on the overall health and well-being of women and children. Incorrect Solution: B The ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ is a comprehensive health initiative that represents a significant step towards addressing the health and nutritional needs of women and children in India. Statement 1 is correct. This campaign is a collaborative effort, jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). This “whole-of-government” approach ensures that the expertise and resources of both ministries are leveraged effectively to achieve the campaign’s objectives. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s scope is much broader than just NCDs and cancer screening. While it does include screening for these conditions, it also encompasses a wide range of other health and wellness aspects. These include addressing tuberculosis (TB), anaemia, and sickle cell disease, as well as promoting nutrition awareness, menstrual hygiene, healthy lifestyles, and mental well-being. Statement 3 is correct. The campaign is strategically integrated with the activities of Poshan Maah 2025. This integration allows for a synergistic approach, combining health check-ups and screenings with nutrition-focused activities like Annaprashan ceremonies, recipe demonstrations, and awareness campaigns on healthy eating habits. This holistic approach aims to create a greater impact on the overall health and well-being of women and children.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’:

• It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD).

• The campaign focuses exclusively on non-communicable diseases (NCDs) and cancer screening for women.

• The activities of this campaign are integrated with the Poshan Maah 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ is a comprehensive health initiative that represents a significant step towards addressing the health and nutritional needs of women and children in India.

Statement 1 is correct. This campaign is a collaborative effort, jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). This “whole-of-government” approach ensures that the expertise and resources of both ministries are leveraged effectively to achieve the campaign’s objectives.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s scope is much broader than just NCDs and cancer screening. While it does include screening for these conditions, it also encompasses a wide range of other health and wellness aspects. These include addressing tuberculosis (TB), anaemia, and sickle cell disease, as well as promoting nutrition awareness, menstrual hygiene, healthy lifestyles, and mental well-being.

Statement 3 is correct. The campaign is strategically integrated with the activities of Poshan Maah 2025. This integration allows for a synergistic approach, combining health check-ups and screenings with nutrition-focused activities like Annaprashan ceremonies, recipe demonstrations, and awareness campaigns on healthy eating habits. This holistic approach aims to create a greater impact on the overall health and well-being of women and children.

Solution: B

The ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ is a comprehensive health initiative that represents a significant step towards addressing the health and nutritional needs of women and children in India.

Statement 1 is correct. This campaign is a collaborative effort, jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). This “whole-of-government” approach ensures that the expertise and resources of both ministries are leveraged effectively to achieve the campaign’s objectives.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s scope is much broader than just NCDs and cancer screening. While it does include screening for these conditions, it also encompasses a wide range of other health and wellness aspects. These include addressing tuberculosis (TB), anaemia, and sickle cell disease, as well as promoting nutrition awareness, menstrual hygiene, healthy lifestyles, and mental well-being.

Statement 3 is correct. The campaign is strategically integrated with the activities of Poshan Maah 2025. This integration allows for a synergistic approach, combining health check-ups and screenings with nutrition-focused activities like Annaprashan ceremonies, recipe demonstrations, and awareness campaigns on healthy eating habits. This holistic approach aims to create a greater impact on the overall health and well-being of women and children.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Judicial Experimentalism: It is strictly limited to the traditional interpretation of existing laws. It can involve the creation of new remedies and procedures not explicitly mentioned in the law. The remedies introduced through judicial experimentalism are permanent and cannot be modified. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Judicial experimentalism is characterized by courts going beyond the traditional interpretation of law. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of judicial experimentalism is the creation of innovative remedies and institutional mechanisms to address gaps in the legal framework, such as the Vishaka Guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect. The approach is often one of trial-and-error, and the directions given by the courts may be modified, diluted, or even struck down later, as seen in the Rajesh Sharma case regarding Section 498A. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Judicial experimentalism is characterized by courts going beyond the traditional interpretation of law. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of judicial experimentalism is the creation of innovative remedies and institutional mechanisms to address gaps in the legal framework, such as the Vishaka Guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect. The approach is often one of trial-and-error, and the directions given by the courts may be modified, diluted, or even struck down later, as seen in the Rajesh Sharma case regarding Section 498A.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Judicial Experimentalism:

• It is strictly limited to the traditional interpretation of existing laws.

• It can involve the creation of new remedies and procedures not explicitly mentioned in the law.

• The remedies introduced through judicial experimentalism are permanent and cannot be modified.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. Judicial experimentalism is characterized by courts going beyond the traditional interpretation of law.

Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of judicial experimentalism is the creation of innovative remedies and institutional mechanisms to address gaps in the legal framework, such as the Vishaka Guidelines.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The approach is often one of trial-and-error, and the directions given by the courts may be modified, diluted, or even struck down later, as seen in the Rajesh Sharma case regarding Section 498A.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. Judicial experimentalism is characterized by courts going beyond the traditional interpretation of law.

Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of judicial experimentalism is the creation of innovative remedies and institutional mechanisms to address gaps in the legal framework, such as the Vishaka Guidelines.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The approach is often one of trial-and-error, and the directions given by the courts may be modified, diluted, or even struck down later, as seen in the Rajesh Sharma case regarding Section 498A.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, consider the following statements: Statement I: The primary objective of Section 498A is to protect women from cruelty, particularly in the context of dowry harassment. Statement II: The Supreme Court, in the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, mandated immediate arrest upon the filing of a complaint under Section 498A. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Section 498A was enacted in 1983 with the specific purpose of protecting women from cruelty within their matrimonial homes, with a strong focus on dowry-related harassment. Statement II is incorrect. In the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, the Supreme Court, recognizing the potential for misuse of Section 498A, allowed for a preliminary inquiry before the registration of an FIR in matrimonial disputes. This was a safeguard against arbitrary arrests, not a mandate for immediate arrest. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Section 498A was enacted in 1983 with the specific purpose of protecting women from cruelty within their matrimonial homes, with a strong focus on dowry-related harassment. Statement II is incorrect. In the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, the Supreme Court, recognizing the potential for misuse of Section 498A, allowed for a preliminary inquiry before the registration of an FIR in matrimonial disputes. This was a safeguard against arbitrary arrests, not a mandate for immediate arrest.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary objective of Section 498A is to protect women from cruelty, particularly in the context of dowry harassment.

Statement II: The Supreme Court, in the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, mandated immediate arrest upon the filing of a complaint under Section 498A.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement I is correct. Section 498A was enacted in 1983 with the specific purpose of protecting women from cruelty within their matrimonial homes, with a strong focus on dowry-related harassment.

Statement II is incorrect. In the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, the Supreme Court, recognizing the potential for misuse of Section 498A, allowed for a preliminary inquiry before the registration of an FIR in matrimonial disputes. This was a safeguard against arbitrary arrests, not a mandate for immediate arrest.

Solution: C

Statement I is correct. Section 498A was enacted in 1983 with the specific purpose of protecting women from cruelty within their matrimonial homes, with a strong focus on dowry-related harassment.

Statement II is incorrect. In the Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P. case, the Supreme Court, recognizing the potential for misuse of Section 498A, allowed for a preliminary inquiry before the registration of an FIR in matrimonial disputes. This was a safeguard against arbitrary arrests, not a mandate for immediate arrest.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Two-Factor Authentication (2FA): Statement I: Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) significantly mitigates the risk associated with password theft and phishing attacks. Statement II: 2FA requires users to present a second factor of verification, which is something they physically possess, such as a phone generating a time-based code. Statement III: The effectiveness of 2FA is based on the principle that an attacker is unlikely to have simultaneous access to both the user’s password and their physical device. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I makes a claim about the benefit of 2FA. Statements II and III explain how and why this benefit is achieved. Statement II describes the mechanics of 2FA: it adds a second layer of security (“something you have”) to the first layer (“something you know”). Statement III explains the underlying security principle: it is statistically much harder for an attacker to compromise two different and independent factors. An attacker might steal a password through a phishing email (compromising the “know” factor), but they would still need to gain physical possession of the user’s phone or hardware token (the “have” factor) to breach the account. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I makes a claim about the benefit of 2FA. Statements II and III explain how and why this benefit is achieved. Statement II describes the mechanics of 2FA: it adds a second layer of security (“something you have”) to the first layer (“something you know”). Statement III explains the underlying security principle: it is statistically much harder for an attacker to compromise two different and independent factors. An attacker might steal a password through a phishing email (compromising the “know” factor), but they would still need to gain physical possession of the user’s phone or hardware token (the “have” factor) to breach the account.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Two-Factor Authentication (2FA):

Statement I: Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) significantly mitigates the risk associated with password theft and phishing attacks.

Statement II: 2FA requires users to present a second factor of verification, which is something they physically possess, such as a phone generating a time-based code.

Statement III: The effectiveness of 2FA is based on the principle that an attacker is unlikely to have simultaneous access to both the user’s password and their physical device.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I makes a claim about the benefit of 2FA. Statements II and III explain how and why this benefit is achieved.

• Statement II describes the mechanics of 2FA: it adds a second layer of security (“something you have”) to the first layer (“something you know”).

• Statement III explains the underlying security principle: it is statistically much harder for an attacker to compromise two different and independent factors. An attacker might steal a password through a phishing email (compromising the “know” factor), but they would still need to gain physical possession of the user’s phone or hardware token (the “have” factor) to breach the account.

Solution: A

• Statement I makes a claim about the benefit of 2FA. Statements II and III explain how and why this benefit is achieved.

• Statement II describes the mechanics of 2FA: it adds a second layer of security (“something you have”) to the first layer (“something you know”).

• Statement III explains the underlying security principle: it is statistically much harder for an attacker to compromise two different and independent factors. An attacker might steal a password through a phishing email (compromising the “know” factor), but they would still need to gain physical possession of the user’s phone or hardware token (the “have” factor) to breach the account.

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