UPSC Editorials Quiz : 23 December 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT a valid ground for restricting freedom of speech and expression? (a) Contempt of court (b) Defamation (c) Autonomous status of tribal areas (d) Sovereignty and integrity of India Correct Solution: C Article 19(2) lists specific reasonable restrictions. These are: Sovereignty and integrity of India Security of the State Public order Decency or morality Defamation Contempt of court Incitement to an offence “Autonomous status of tribal areas” is not explicitly mentioned as a ground under Article 19(2) for restricting free speech. While other schedules of the Constitution deal with tribal areas, it is not a direct ground for restricting Article 19(1)(a) in the text of Article 19(2). Incorrect Solution: C Article 19(2) lists specific reasonable restrictions. These are: Sovereignty and integrity of India Security of the State Public order Decency or morality Defamation Contempt of court Incitement to an offence “Autonomous status of tribal areas” is not explicitly mentioned as a ground under Article 19(2) for restricting free speech. While other schedules of the Constitution deal with tribal areas, it is not a direct ground for restricting Article 19(1)(a) in the text of Article 19(2).
#### 1. Question
With reference to Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT a valid ground for restricting freedom of speech and expression?
• (a) Contempt of court
• (b) Defamation
• (c) Autonomous status of tribal areas
• (d) Sovereignty and integrity of India
Solution: C
Article 19(2) lists specific reasonable restrictions. These are:
• Sovereignty and integrity of India
• Security of the State
• Public order
• Decency or morality
• Defamation
• Contempt of court
• Incitement to an offence
“Autonomous status of tribal areas” is not explicitly mentioned as a ground under Article 19(2) for restricting free speech. While other schedules of the Constitution deal with tribal areas, it is not a direct ground for restricting Article 19(1)(a) in the text of Article 19(2).
Solution: C
Article 19(2) lists specific reasonable restrictions. These are:
• Sovereignty and integrity of India
• Security of the State
• Public order
• Decency or morality
• Defamation
• Contempt of court
• Incitement to an offence
“Autonomous status of tribal areas” is not explicitly mentioned as a ground under Article 19(2) for restricting free speech. While other schedules of the Constitution deal with tribal areas, it is not a direct ground for restricting Article 19(1)(a) in the text of Article 19(2).
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to the conservation status of marine species, consider the following statements regarding the Green Sea Turtle (Chelonia mydas): Recently, the IUCN Red List reclassified the Green Sea Turtle from ‘Endangered’ to ‘Least Concern’ globally. They are highly restricted to the tropical waters of the Indian Ocean and are not found in the Atlantic or Pacific Oceans. Successful conservation efforts, including the reduction of bycatch and protection of nesting beaches, were cited as primary reasons for its population recovery. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle is not classified as ‘least concern’ globally. On the IUCN Red List, Chelonia mydas continues to be listed as Endangered, reflecting ongoing threats such as habitat loss, climate change, illegal harvesting, marine pollution, and fisheries bycatch. While some regional populations have shown encouraging recovery trends, the global assessment has not been downgraded to least concern, and conservation concerns remain significant at the species level. Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle has a circumglobal distribution and is found in tropical and subtropical waters of all major oceans, including the Indian, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans, as well as parts of the Mediterranean Sea. Its wide migratory range between foraging grounds and nesting beaches is a defining ecological characteristic of the species. Statement 3 is correct. The IUCN and other conservation assessments explicitly acknowledge that long-term protection of nesting beaches, legal safeguards, community-based conservation, and reductions in fisheries bycatch have contributed to population stabilization or recovery in several regions. These successes demonstrate that sustained conservation interventions can yield positive outcomes, even though global threats still justify an endangered status. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle is not classified as ‘least concern’ globally. On the IUCN Red List, Chelonia mydas continues to be listed as Endangered, reflecting ongoing threats such as habitat loss, climate change, illegal harvesting, marine pollution, and fisheries bycatch. While some regional populations have shown encouraging recovery trends, the global assessment has not been downgraded to least concern, and conservation concerns remain significant at the species level. Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle has a circumglobal distribution and is found in tropical and subtropical waters of all major oceans, including the Indian, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans, as well as parts of the Mediterranean Sea. Its wide migratory range between foraging grounds and nesting beaches is a defining ecological characteristic of the species. Statement 3 is correct. The IUCN and other conservation assessments explicitly acknowledge that long-term protection of nesting beaches, legal safeguards, community-based conservation, and reductions in fisheries bycatch have contributed to population stabilization or recovery in several regions. These successes demonstrate that sustained conservation interventions can yield positive outcomes, even though global threats still justify an endangered status.
#### 2. Question
With reference to the conservation status of marine species, consider the following statements regarding the Green Sea Turtle (Chelonia mydas):
• Recently, the IUCN Red List reclassified the Green Sea Turtle from ‘Endangered’ to ‘Least Concern’ globally.
• They are highly restricted to the tropical waters of the Indian Ocean and are not found in the Atlantic or Pacific Oceans.
• Successful conservation efforts, including the reduction of bycatch and protection of nesting beaches, were cited as primary reasons for its population recovery.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle is not classified as ‘least concern’ globally. On the IUCN Red List, Chelonia mydas continues to be listed as Endangered, reflecting ongoing threats such as habitat loss, climate change, illegal harvesting, marine pollution, and fisheries bycatch. While some regional populations have shown encouraging recovery trends, the global assessment has not been downgraded to least concern, and conservation concerns remain significant at the species level.
• Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle has a circumglobal distribution and is found in tropical and subtropical waters of all major oceans, including the Indian, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans, as well as parts of the Mediterranean Sea. Its wide migratory range between foraging grounds and nesting beaches is a defining ecological characteristic of the species.
• Statement 3 is correct. The IUCN and other conservation assessments explicitly acknowledge that long-term protection of nesting beaches, legal safeguards, community-based conservation, and reductions in fisheries bycatch have contributed to population stabilization or recovery in several regions. These successes demonstrate that sustained conservation interventions can yield positive outcomes, even though global threats still justify an endangered status.
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle is not classified as ‘least concern’ globally. On the IUCN Red List, Chelonia mydas continues to be listed as Endangered, reflecting ongoing threats such as habitat loss, climate change, illegal harvesting, marine pollution, and fisheries bycatch. While some regional populations have shown encouraging recovery trends, the global assessment has not been downgraded to least concern, and conservation concerns remain significant at the species level.
• Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Green Sea Turtle has a circumglobal distribution and is found in tropical and subtropical waters of all major oceans, including the Indian, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans, as well as parts of the Mediterranean Sea. Its wide migratory range between foraging grounds and nesting beaches is a defining ecological characteristic of the species.
• Statement 3 is correct. The IUCN and other conservation assessments explicitly acknowledge that long-term protection of nesting beaches, legal safeguards, community-based conservation, and reductions in fisheries bycatch have contributed to population stabilization or recovery in several regions. These successes demonstrate that sustained conservation interventions can yield positive outcomes, even though global threats still justify an endangered status.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The term “Creative Destruction”, often cited in economics, refers to: (a) The collapse of banking systems due to non-performing assets. (b) The process by which new innovations replace outdated technologies and industries. (c) The impact of climate change on agricultural productivity. (d) The deliberate devaluation of currency to boost exports. Correct Solution: B The concept of creative destruction was systematically developed and popularised by Joseph Schumpeter, who used it to explain the dynamic nature of capitalist economies. According to this idea, economic growth does not occur smoothly or incrementally; instead, it happens through disruptive waves of innovation that continuously dismantle existing structures. New technologies, business models, and organisational forms render older ones obsolete, leading to the decline of certain firms, skills, and even entire industries. This process is “creative” because it generates productivity gains, new markets, and long-term economic growth, but also “destructive” because it causes short-term dislocation, unemployment in declining sectors, and social adjustment costs. Examples include the replacement of typewriters by computers, fossil-fuel-based energy systems by renewables, or traditional retail by e-commerce platforms. Importantly, creative destruction is not about policy-induced collapse or macroeconomic crises, but about innovation-driven transformation that reshapes the economic landscape over time. Incorrect Solution: B The concept of creative destruction was systematically developed and popularised by Joseph Schumpeter, who used it to explain the dynamic nature of capitalist economies. According to this idea, economic growth does not occur smoothly or incrementally; instead, it happens through disruptive waves of innovation that continuously dismantle existing structures. New technologies, business models, and organisational forms render older ones obsolete, leading to the decline of certain firms, skills, and even entire industries. This process is “creative” because it generates productivity gains, new markets, and long-term economic growth, but also “destructive” because it causes short-term dislocation, unemployment in declining sectors, and social adjustment costs. Examples include the replacement of typewriters by computers, fossil-fuel-based energy systems by renewables, or traditional retail by e-commerce platforms. Importantly, creative destruction is not about policy-induced collapse or macroeconomic crises, but about innovation-driven transformation that reshapes the economic landscape over time.
#### 3. Question
The term “Creative Destruction”, often cited in economics, refers to:
• (a) The collapse of banking systems due to non-performing assets.
• (b) The process by which new innovations replace outdated technologies and industries.
• (c) The impact of climate change on agricultural productivity.
• (d) The deliberate devaluation of currency to boost exports.
Solution: B
• The concept of creative destruction was systematically developed and popularised by Joseph Schumpeter, who used it to explain the dynamic nature of capitalist economies. According to this idea, economic growth does not occur smoothly or incrementally; instead, it happens through disruptive waves of innovation that continuously dismantle existing structures. New technologies, business models, and organisational forms render older ones obsolete, leading to the decline of certain firms, skills, and even entire industries.
• This process is “creative” because it generates productivity gains, new markets, and long-term economic growth, but also “destructive” because it causes short-term dislocation, unemployment in declining sectors, and social adjustment costs. Examples include the replacement of typewriters by computers, fossil-fuel-based energy systems by renewables, or traditional retail by e-commerce platforms. Importantly, creative destruction is not about policy-induced collapse or macroeconomic crises, but about innovation-driven transformation that reshapes the economic landscape over time.
Solution: B
• The concept of creative destruction was systematically developed and popularised by Joseph Schumpeter, who used it to explain the dynamic nature of capitalist economies. According to this idea, economic growth does not occur smoothly or incrementally; instead, it happens through disruptive waves of innovation that continuously dismantle existing structures. New technologies, business models, and organisational forms render older ones obsolete, leading to the decline of certain firms, skills, and even entire industries.
• This process is “creative” because it generates productivity gains, new markets, and long-term economic growth, but also “destructive” because it causes short-term dislocation, unemployment in declining sectors, and social adjustment costs. Examples include the replacement of typewriters by computers, fossil-fuel-based energy systems by renewables, or traditional retail by e-commerce platforms. Importantly, creative destruction is not about policy-induced collapse or macroeconomic crises, but about innovation-driven transformation that reshapes the economic landscape over time.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following concepts/cases seen in news (October 2025) with their legal implications: Column A (Legal Concept/Case) Column B (Subject Matter) Column C (Key Ruling/Provision) 1. Dhanya M. vs. State of Kerala i. Preventive Detention x. Bail cancellation must be sought before invoking detention order. 2. Doctrine of Lis Pendens ii. Property Transfer y. Property cannot be transferred while a suit is pending to protect litigation rights. 3. Digital Arrest iii. Cyber Crime z. Not a legal procedure; categorized as cyber-coercion/fraud. How many of the following combinations is correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Row 1 (1-i-x): The Dhanya M. case (2025) dealt with Preventive Detention (Subject). The Supreme Court ruled that the State must exhaust the remedy of bail cancellation (Key Ruling) for bail violations before resorting to the draconian measure of detention. Row 2 (2-ii-y): The Doctrine of Lis Pendens (Section 52, Transfer of Property Act) relates to Property Transfer. It prevents the transfer of disputed property during the pendency of a lawsuit to ensure that the court’s final decree is not rendered futile by third-party rights. Row 3 (3-iii-z): Digital Arrest is a term used in Cyber Crime. The MHA and law enforcement agenciest have clarified that it is not a legal procedure; law enforcement cannot arrest someone via video call. It is a scam technique classified as cyber-coercion. Incorrect Solution: C Row 1 (1-i-x): The Dhanya M. case (2025) dealt with Preventive Detention (Subject). The Supreme Court ruled that the State must exhaust the remedy of bail cancellation (Key Ruling) for bail violations before resorting to the draconian measure of detention. Row 2 (2-ii-y): The Doctrine of Lis Pendens (Section 52, Transfer of Property Act) relates to Property Transfer. It prevents the transfer of disputed property during the pendency of a lawsuit to ensure that the court’s final decree is not rendered futile by third-party rights. Row 3 (3-iii-z): Digital Arrest is a term used in Cyber Crime. The MHA and law enforcement agenciest have clarified that it is not a legal procedure; law enforcement cannot arrest someone via video call. It is a scam technique classified as cyber-coercion.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following concepts/cases seen in news (October 2025) with their legal implications:
Column A (Legal Concept/Case) | Column B (Subject Matter) | Column C (Key Ruling/Provision)
- 1.Dhanya M. vs. State of Kerala | i. Preventive Detention | x. Bail cancellation must be sought before invoking detention order.
- 2.Doctrine of Lis Pendens | ii. Property Transfer | y. Property cannot be transferred while a suit is pending to protect litigation rights.
- 3.Digital Arrest | iii. Cyber Crime | z. Not a legal procedure; categorized as cyber-coercion/fraud.
How many of the following combinations is correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: C
• Row 1 (1-i-x): The Dhanya M. case (2025) dealt with Preventive Detention (Subject). The Supreme Court ruled that the State must exhaust the remedy of bail cancellation (Key Ruling) for bail violations before resorting to the draconian measure of detention.
• Row 2 (2-ii-y): The Doctrine of Lis Pendens (Section 52, Transfer of Property Act) relates to Property Transfer. It prevents the transfer of disputed property during the pendency of a lawsuit to ensure that the court’s final decree is not rendered futile by third-party rights.
• Row 3 (3-iii-z): Digital Arrest is a term used in Cyber Crime. The MHA and law enforcement agenciest have clarified that it is not a legal procedure; law enforcement cannot arrest someone via video call. It is a scam technique classified as cyber-coercion.
Solution: C
• Row 1 (1-i-x): The Dhanya M. case (2025) dealt with Preventive Detention (Subject). The Supreme Court ruled that the State must exhaust the remedy of bail cancellation (Key Ruling) for bail violations before resorting to the draconian measure of detention.
• Row 2 (2-ii-y): The Doctrine of Lis Pendens (Section 52, Transfer of Property Act) relates to Property Transfer. It prevents the transfer of disputed property during the pendency of a lawsuit to ensure that the court’s final decree is not rendered futile by third-party rights.
• Row 3 (3-iii-z): Digital Arrest is a term used in Cyber Crime. The MHA and law enforcement agenciest have clarified that it is not a legal procedure; law enforcement cannot arrest someone via video call. It is a scam technique classified as cyber-coercion.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme, often seen in the news, consider the following statements: It is a multilateral agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) where all developed nations provide duty-free access to all developing nations. Under this scheme, India unilaterally extends tariff preferences to Least Developed Countries (LDCs) to boost their exports to India. The scheme covers a wide range of products including agricultural commodities and textiles. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DFTP is not a uniform multilateral WTO agreement. While it aligns with the WTO’s Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration (2005) regarding LDCs, the specific “DFTP Scheme” referred to here is India’s unilateral initiative launched in 2008. Other countries have their own versions (e.g., EU’s EBA), but they are distinct schemes. Statement 2 is Correct: India launched this scheme to provide preferential market access (duty-free or reduced tariffs) specifically to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). It is a tool of India’s economic diplomacy and South-South cooperation. Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme is comprehensive, covering over 97% of tariff lines. It specifically includes sectors relevant to LDCs like agriculture (spices, fruits), textiles, and minerals. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DFTP is not a uniform multilateral WTO agreement. While it aligns with the WTO’s Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration (2005) regarding LDCs, the specific “DFTP Scheme” referred to here is India’s unilateral initiative launched in 2008. Other countries have their own versions (e.g., EU’s EBA), but they are distinct schemes. Statement 2 is Correct: India launched this scheme to provide preferential market access (duty-free or reduced tariffs) specifically to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). It is a tool of India’s economic diplomacy and South-South cooperation. Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme is comprehensive, covering over 97% of tariff lines. It specifically includes sectors relevant to LDCs like agriculture (spices, fruits), textiles, and minerals.
#### 5. Question
With reference to the Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme, often seen in the news, consider the following statements:
• It is a multilateral agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) where all developed nations provide duty-free access to all developing nations.
• Under this scheme, India unilaterally extends tariff preferences to Least Developed Countries (LDCs) to boost their exports to India.
• The scheme covers a wide range of products including agricultural commodities and textiles.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DFTP is not a uniform multilateral WTO agreement. While it aligns with the WTO’s Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration (2005) regarding LDCs, the specific “DFTP Scheme” referred to here is India’s unilateral initiative launched in 2008. Other countries have their own versions (e.g., EU’s EBA), but they are distinct schemes.
• Statement 2 is Correct: India launched this scheme to provide preferential market access (duty-free or reduced tariffs) specifically to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). It is a tool of India’s economic diplomacy and South-South cooperation.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme is comprehensive, covering over 97% of tariff lines. It specifically includes sectors relevant to LDCs like agriculture (spices, fruits), textiles, and minerals.
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DFTP is not a uniform multilateral WTO agreement. While it aligns with the WTO’s Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration (2005) regarding LDCs, the specific “DFTP Scheme” referred to here is India’s unilateral initiative launched in 2008. Other countries have their own versions (e.g., EU’s EBA), but they are distinct schemes.
• Statement 2 is Correct: India launched this scheme to provide preferential market access (duty-free or reduced tariffs) specifically to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). It is a tool of India’s economic diplomacy and South-South cooperation.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme is comprehensive, covering over 97% of tariff lines. It specifically includes sectors relevant to LDCs like agriculture (spices, fruits), textiles, and minerals.
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