UPSC Editorials Quiz : 22 November 2024

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the Oriental Pied Hornbill: It is the largest hornbill species found in Asia. It is highly adaptable and widespread across its range. It is known as a ‘forest engineer’ due to its role in seed dispersal. It primarily inhabits subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 3, and 4 only c) 2, 3, and 4 only d) 1, 2, and 4 only Correct Solution: c) Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size. Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes. Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation. Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size. Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes. Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation. Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the Oriental Pied Hornbill:

• It is the largest hornbill species found in Asia.

• It is highly adaptable and widespread across its range.

• It is known as a ‘forest engineer’ due to its role in seed dispersal.

• It primarily inhabits subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• c) 2, 3, and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Solution: c)

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size.

Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.

Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.

Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

Solution: c)

Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.

Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.

Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and State governments: The Union government can borrow funds without any restriction on the source of borrowing. The State government can borrow within the territory of India but needs prior consent from the Centre if it owes outstanding loans to the Union. The borrowing powers of both the Union and States are subject to laws enacted by their respective legislatures. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers. Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness. Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers. Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness. Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and State governments:

• The Union government can borrow funds without any restriction on the source of borrowing.

• The State government can borrow within the territory of India but needs prior consent from the Centre if it owes outstanding loans to the Union.

• The borrowing powers of both the Union and States are subject to laws enacted by their respective legislatures.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers.

Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness.

Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question What is the primary aim of the Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024)? a) To promote international cybersecurity collaborations b) To establish a global cybersecurity command center c) To develop artificial intelligence-based cybersecurity tools d) To enhance India’s cybersecurity resilience Correct Solution: d) The Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024) is a critical initiative aimed at bolstering India’s cybersecurity preparedness. Its primary goal is to enhance cybersecurity resilience by: Training Professionals: Equipping government, industry, and academic stakeholders with the necessary skills to detect, respond to, and mitigate cyber threats. Simulating Cyber Crisis Scenarios: Creating realistic cyberattack scenarios to test the preparedness of organizations and improve incident response capabilities. Preparing Leadership: Enabling decision-makers to effectively manage national-level cybersecurity incidents and crises. By focusing on domestic resilience rather than international collaborations or AI tool development, Bharat NCX 2024 strengthens India’s ability to safeguard critical infrastructure, data security, and national interests against evolving cyber threats. This aligns with India’s broader efforts to build a robust cybersecurity ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: d) The Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024) is a critical initiative aimed at bolstering India’s cybersecurity preparedness. Its primary goal is to enhance cybersecurity resilience by: Training Professionals: Equipping government, industry, and academic stakeholders with the necessary skills to detect, respond to, and mitigate cyber threats. Simulating Cyber Crisis Scenarios: Creating realistic cyberattack scenarios to test the preparedness of organizations and improve incident response capabilities. Preparing Leadership: Enabling decision-makers to effectively manage national-level cybersecurity incidents and crises. By focusing on domestic resilience rather than international collaborations or AI tool development, Bharat NCX 2024 strengthens India’s ability to safeguard critical infrastructure, data security, and national interests against evolving cyber threats. This aligns with India’s broader efforts to build a robust cybersecurity ecosystem.

#### 3. Question

What is the primary aim of the Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024)?

• a) To promote international cybersecurity collaborations

• b) To establish a global cybersecurity command center

• c) To develop artificial intelligence-based cybersecurity tools

• d) To enhance India’s cybersecurity resilience

Solution: d)

The Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024) is a critical initiative aimed at bolstering India’s cybersecurity preparedness. Its primary goal is to enhance cybersecurity resilience by:

• Training Professionals: Equipping government, industry, and academic stakeholders with the necessary skills to detect, respond to, and mitigate cyber threats.

• Simulating Cyber Crisis Scenarios: Creating realistic cyberattack scenarios to test the preparedness of organizations and improve incident response capabilities.

• Preparing Leadership: Enabling decision-makers to effectively manage national-level cybersecurity incidents and crises.

By focusing on domestic resilience rather than international collaborations or AI tool development, Bharat NCX 2024 strengthens India’s ability to safeguard critical infrastructure, data security, and national interests against evolving cyber threats. This aligns with India’s broader efforts to build a robust cybersecurity ecosystem.

Solution: d)

• Training Professionals: Equipping government, industry, and academic stakeholders with the necessary skills to detect, respond to, and mitigate cyber threats.

• Simulating Cyber Crisis Scenarios: Creating realistic cyberattack scenarios to test the preparedness of organizations and improve incident response capabilities.

• Preparing Leadership: Enabling decision-makers to effectively manage national-level cybersecurity incidents and crises.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for notification of tiger reserves in India: Only the NTCA can notify a tiger reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The core zone of a tiger reserve allows sustainable human habitation and activities. The state government submits the proposal to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves. Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area. Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves. Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area. Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for notification of tiger reserves in India:

• Only the NTCA can notify a tiger reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• The core zone of a tiger reserve allows sustainable human habitation and activities.

• The state government submits the proposal to the NTCA for evaluation and approval.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves.

Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area.

Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.

Solution: a)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA): WADA is funded entirely by the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The World Anti-Doping Code standardizes anti-doping rules globally. WADA focuses solely on conducting doping tests during international sporting events. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance. Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally. Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance. Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally. Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):

• WADA is funded entirely by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

• The World Anti-Doping Code standardizes anti-doping rules globally.

• WADA focuses solely on conducting doping tests during international sporting events.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance.

• Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally.

• Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events.

Solution: a)

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