UPSC Editorials Quiz : 21 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016: It completely prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in all occupations and processes without any exceptions. It allows adolescents in the age group of 14 to 18 years to work in non-hazardous family enterprises after school hours or during vacations. The amendment of 2016 increased the penalties for employers violating the Act and made the offence cognizable. The Act tasks the Central Government with enforcement in all establishments across the country. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016 (CALPRA), prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in any occupation, it includes a significant exception. It allows children to help in their family or family enterprises (which are not hazardous) after school hours or during vacations. Statement 2 is correct. The Act prohibits the employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes listed in the schedule. However, it permits adolescents to work in non-hazardous occupations, including helping in family enterprises, provided it does not interfere with their education. Statement 3 is correct. The 2016 amendment to the CALPRA significantly enhanced the punishment for employers violating the Act, including imprisonment and fines. Crucially, it also made the employment of a child or adolescent in contravention of the Act a cognizable offence, meaning police can arrest without a warrant. Statement 4 is incorrect. The enforcement of the CALPRA is divided. The State Government is the appropriate authority for enforcement in most establishments. The Central Government is the appropriate Government for enforcement in relation to establishments under its control, or a railway administration, major port, mine, or oilfield. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016 (CALPRA), prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in any occupation, it includes a significant exception. It allows children to help in their family or family enterprises (which are not hazardous) after school hours or during vacations. Statement 2 is correct. The Act prohibits the employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes listed in the schedule. However, it permits adolescents to work in non-hazardous occupations, including helping in family enterprises, provided it does not interfere with their education. Statement 3 is correct. The 2016 amendment to the CALPRA significantly enhanced the punishment for employers violating the Act, including imprisonment and fines. Crucially, it also made the employment of a child or adolescent in contravention of the Act a cognizable offence, meaning police can arrest without a warrant. Statement 4 is incorrect. The enforcement of the CALPRA is divided. The State Government is the appropriate authority for enforcement in most establishments. The Central Government is the appropriate Government for enforcement in relation to establishments under its control, or a railway administration, major port, mine, or oilfield.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016:

• It completely prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in all occupations and processes without any exceptions.

• It allows adolescents in the age group of 14 to 18 years to work in non-hazardous family enterprises after school hours or during vacations.

• The amendment of 2016 increased the penalties for employers violating the Act and made the offence cognizable.

• The Act tasks the Central Government with enforcement in all establishments across the country.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016 (CALPRA), prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in any occupation, it includes a significant exception. It allows children to help in their family or family enterprises (which are not hazardous) after school hours or during vacations.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Act prohibits the employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes listed in the schedule. However, it permits adolescents to work in non-hazardous occupations, including helping in family enterprises, provided it does not interfere with their education.

• Statement 3 is correct. The 2016 amendment to the CALPRA significantly enhanced the punishment for employers violating the Act, including imprisonment and fines. Crucially, it also made the employment of a child or adolescent in contravention of the Act a cognizable offence, meaning police can arrest without a warrant.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The enforcement of the CALPRA is divided. The State Government is the appropriate authority for enforcement in most establishments. The Central Government is the appropriate Government for enforcement in relation to establishments under its control, or a railway administration, major port, mine, or oilfield.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Sindoor’ conducted in May 2025: The operation was primarily a naval blockade aimed at restricting Pakistan’s maritime trade in response to the Pahalgam terror attack. A key non-military measure undertaken by India during Operation Sindoor was the unilateral abrogation of the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Sindoor was a calibrated military response involving precision strikes on terror infrastructure, not primarily a naval blockade. It involved air and land-based actions. Statement 2 is incorrect. India announced the suspension or holding in abeyance of the Indus Waters Treaty, not its unilateral abrogation. Abrogation implies a permanent termination, while suspension suggests a temporary cessation of adherence to its provisions pending certain conditions. The World Bank also clarified that the treaty does not have a provision for unilateral suspension. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Sindoor was a calibrated military response involving precision strikes on terror infrastructure, not primarily a naval blockade. It involved air and land-based actions. Statement 2 is incorrect. India announced the suspension or holding in abeyance of the Indus Waters Treaty, not its unilateral abrogation. Abrogation implies a permanent termination, while suspension suggests a temporary cessation of adherence to its provisions pending certain conditions. The World Bank also clarified that the treaty does not have a provision for unilateral suspension. Statement 1 is correct: Cables are buried under the seabed near shores to protect them from damage. Statement 2 is incorrect: Fiber-optic cables transmit data using light signals, not electrical signals. Statement 3 is correct: Undersea cables are protected by insulation, plastic, and steel layers. How they work: Fiber-optic technologytransmits data using laser beams through thin glass fibres. Protected by layers of insulation, plastic, and steel wires. Buried under seabed near shores; laid directly on the ocean floor in deep sea.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Sindoor’ conducted in May 2025:

• The operation was primarily a naval blockade aimed at restricting Pakistan’s maritime trade in response to the Pahalgam terror attack.

• A key non-military measure undertaken by India during Operation Sindoor was the unilateral abrogation of the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Sindoor was a calibrated military response involving precision strikes on terror infrastructure, not primarily a naval blockade. It involved air and land-based actions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. India announced the suspension or holding in abeyance of the Indus Waters Treaty, not its unilateral abrogation. Abrogation implies a permanent termination, while suspension suggests a temporary cessation of adherence to its provisions pending certain conditions. The World Bank also clarified that the treaty does not have a provision for unilateral suspension.

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct: Cables are buried under the seabed near shores to protect them from damage.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fiber-optic cables transmit data using light signals, not electrical signals.

Statement 3 is correct: Undersea cables are protected by insulation, plastic, and steel layers.

How they work:

• Fiber-optic technologytransmits data using laser beams through thin glass fibres.

• Protected by layers of insulation, plastic, and steel wires.

• Buried under seabed near shores; laid directly on the ocean floor in deep sea.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime, adopted in December 2024: The Convention mandates the criminalization of only cyber-dependent offenses like hacking, excluding cyber-enabled crimes such as online fraud. The Convention requires States Parties to establish a 24/7 network to provide immediate assistance for investigations and facilitate measures like data preservation. Unlike the Budapest Convention, this UN Convention uses the terminology “computer systems” and “computer data” to align with traditional legal frameworks. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Convention requires criminalization of a broad range of offenses, including both cyber-dependent crimes (e.g., illegal access, data interference) and cyber-enabled crimes (e.g., online fraud, ICT system-related forgery, non-consensual dissemination of intimate images). Statement 2 is correct. The Convention mandates States Parties to establish a network of 24/7 contact points to facilitate immediate assistance for investigations, prosecutions, and measures such as technical advice, preservation of stored electronic data, and evidence collection. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UN Convention against Cybercrime adopts the terms “information and communications technology system” (ICT system) and “electronic data” instead of the “computer” and “computer systems” terminology used in the Budapest Convention, reflecting the evolving nature of technology. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Convention requires criminalization of a broad range of offenses, including both cyber-dependent crimes (e.g., illegal access, data interference) and cyber-enabled crimes (e.g., online fraud, ICT system-related forgery, non-consensual dissemination of intimate images). Statement 2 is correct. The Convention mandates States Parties to establish a network of 24/7 contact points to facilitate immediate assistance for investigations, prosecutions, and measures such as technical advice, preservation of stored electronic data, and evidence collection. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UN Convention against Cybercrime adopts the terms “information and communications technology system” (ICT system) and “electronic data” instead of the “computer” and “computer systems” terminology used in the Budapest Convention, reflecting the evolving nature of technology.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime, adopted in December 2024:

• The Convention mandates the criminalization of only cyber-dependent offenses like hacking, excluding cyber-enabled crimes such as online fraud.

• The Convention requires States Parties to establish a 24/7 network to provide immediate assistance for investigations and facilitate measures like data preservation.

• Unlike the Budapest Convention, this UN Convention uses the terminology “computer systems” and “computer data” to align with traditional legal frameworks.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Convention requires criminalization of a broad range of offenses, including both cyber-dependent crimes (e.g., illegal access, data interference) and cyber-enabled crimes (e.g., online fraud, ICT system-related forgery, non-consensual dissemination of intimate images).

• Statement 2 is correct. The Convention mandates States Parties to establish a network of 24/7 contact points to facilitate immediate assistance for investigations, prosecutions, and measures such as technical advice, preservation of stored electronic data, and evidence collection.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The UN Convention against Cybercrime adopts the terms “information and communications technology system” (ICT system) and “electronic data” instead of the “computer” and “computer systems” terminology used in the Budapest Convention, reflecting the evolving nature of technology.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding river water management and disputes in India: The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 mandates the central government to set up a tribunal within one year of receiving a request from any state government involved in a water dispute, provided the central government believes negotiation has failed. The ‘Jal Jeevan Mission’ primarily focuses on augmenting surface water resources through large dam construction to ensure piped water supply to rural households. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) is a statutory body constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, with powers equivalent to a civil court. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, Section 4(1), states that when a request is received from any State Government regarding a water dispute and the Central Government is of the opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, the Central Government shall, within a period not exceeding one year from the date of receipt of such request, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a Water Disputes Tribunal for the adjudication of the water dispute. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Jal Jeevan Mission’s primary objective is to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024. While it involves water source sustainability measures, its main focus is on water service delivery (piped water supply) and quality, not primarily on augmenting surface water through large dam construction. It emphasizes decentralized water management and local source sustainability. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) was constituted by the Central Government through a notification in 2018, following the Supreme Court’s verdict which modified the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal’s award. It was established under Section 6A of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (as inserted by an amendment). While it has powers to implement the tribunal award modified by the SC, it is primarily an implementing and regulatory body, not a tribunal itself formed under the main provisions of the Act, and its powers are specified in the scheme, not automatically equivalent to a civil court in all respects like a Tribunal under Section 5(2) of the Act. The Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) assists the CWMA. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, Section 4(1), states that when a request is received from any State Government regarding a water dispute and the Central Government is of the opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, the Central Government shall, within a period not exceeding one year from the date of receipt of such request, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a Water Disputes Tribunal for the adjudication of the water dispute. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Jal Jeevan Mission’s primary objective is to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024. While it involves water source sustainability measures, its main focus is on water service delivery (piped water supply) and quality, not primarily on augmenting surface water through large dam construction. It emphasizes decentralized water management and local source sustainability. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) was constituted by the Central Government through a notification in 2018, following the Supreme Court’s verdict which modified the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal’s award. It was established under Section 6A of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (as inserted by an amendment). While it has powers to implement the tribunal award modified by the SC, it is primarily an implementing and regulatory body, not a tribunal itself formed under the main provisions of the Act, and its powers are specified in the scheme, not automatically equivalent to a civil court in all respects like a Tribunal under Section 5(2) of the Act. The Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) assists the CWMA.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding river water management and disputes in India:

• The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 mandates the central government to set up a tribunal within one year of receiving a request from any state government involved in a water dispute, provided the central government believes negotiation has failed.

• The ‘Jal Jeevan Mission’ primarily focuses on augmenting surface water resources through large dam construction to ensure piped water supply to rural households.

• The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) is a statutory body constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, with powers equivalent to a civil court.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, Section 4(1), states that when a request is received from any State Government regarding a water dispute and the Central Government is of the opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, the Central Government shall, within a period not exceeding one year from the date of receipt of such request, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a Water Disputes Tribunal for the adjudication of the water dispute.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Jal Jeevan Mission’s primary objective is to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024. While it involves water source sustainability measures, its main focus is on water service delivery (piped water supply) and quality, not primarily on augmenting surface water through large dam construction. It emphasizes decentralized water management and local source sustainability.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) was constituted by the Central Government through a notification in 2018, following the Supreme Court’s verdict which modified the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal’s award. It was established under Section 6A of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (as inserted by an amendment). While it has powers to implement the tribunal award modified by the SC, it is primarily an implementing and regulatory body, not a tribunal itself formed under the main provisions of the Act, and its powers are specified in the scheme, not automatically equivalent to a civil court in all respects like a Tribunal under Section 5(2) of the Act. The Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) assists the CWMA.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to Millets (Shree Anna) cultivation and promotion in India, consider the following statements: India is the largest global producer of millets, accounting for over half of the world’s production. Millets like Bajra and Ragi typically require less water and have a shorter growing season compared to rice and wheat, making them climate-resilient. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime in India covers all major and minor millet varieties grown across the country. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While India is a major producer of millets (often the largest for specific types or overall), it does not account for over half (50%) of the world’s production. Global estimates often place India’s share around 40% or slightly more, though figures vary. Statement 2 is correct. Millets, including major ones like Sorghum (Jowar), Pearl Millet (Bajra), and Finger Millet (Ragi), are known for their drought tolerance, lower water requirements, and ability to grow in marginal soils compared to water-intensive crops like rice and wheat. They generally have shorter maturation periods, contributing to their climate resilience. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MSP regime primarily covers major millets like Jowar, Bajra, and Ragi. It does not extend to all minor millet varieties (like Kodo, Kutki, Foxtail, etc.) grown across India, although state governments sometimes offer incentives or procurement for minor millets. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While India is a major producer of millets (often the largest for specific types or overall), it does not account for over half (50%) of the world’s production. Global estimates often place India’s share around 40% or slightly more, though figures vary. Statement 2 is correct. Millets, including major ones like Sorghum (Jowar), Pearl Millet (Bajra), and Finger Millet (Ragi), are known for their drought tolerance, lower water requirements, and ability to grow in marginal soils compared to water-intensive crops like rice and wheat. They generally have shorter maturation periods, contributing to their climate resilience. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MSP regime primarily covers major millets like Jowar, Bajra, and Ragi. It does not extend to all minor millet varieties (like Kodo, Kutki, Foxtail, etc.) grown across India, although state governments sometimes offer incentives or procurement for minor millets.

#### 5. Question

With reference to Millets (Shree Anna) cultivation and promotion in India, consider the following statements:

• India is the largest global producer of millets, accounting for over half of the world’s production.

• Millets like Bajra and Ragi typically require less water and have a shorter growing season compared to rice and wheat, making them climate-resilient.

• The Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime in India covers all major and minor millet varieties grown across the country.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While India is a major producer of millets (often the largest for specific types or overall), it does not account for over half (50%) of the world’s production. Global estimates often place India’s share around 40% or slightly more, though figures vary.

• Statement 2 is correct. Millets, including major ones like Sorghum (Jowar), Pearl Millet (Bajra), and Finger Millet (Ragi), are known for their drought tolerance, lower water requirements, and ability to grow in marginal soils compared to water-intensive crops like rice and wheat. They generally have shorter maturation periods, contributing to their climate resilience.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The MSP regime primarily covers major millets like Jowar, Bajra, and Ragi. It does not extend to all minor millet varieties (like Kodo, Kutki, Foxtail, etc.) grown across India, although state governments sometimes offer incentives or procurement for minor millets.

Solution: a)

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