UPSC Editorials Quiz : 21 June 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. He is the head of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence. Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) of India is headed by CDS. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. Chief of Defence Staff (CDS): CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members. Function: foster greater operational synergy between the three service branches of the Indian military and keep inter-service frictions to a minimum. Head: Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence. Single-point military adviser to the defence minister on matters involving all three services Service chiefs will be obliged to confine their counsel to issues pertaining to their respective services. CDS is vested with the authority: Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee. Provide directives to the three chiefs. CDS is first among equals: He enjoys the rank of Secretary within the DoD (Department of Defence) and his powers will be confined to only the revenue budget. He will perform an advisory role in the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA). Source Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. Chief of Defence Staff (CDS): CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members. Function: foster greater operational synergy between the three service branches of the Indian military and keep inter-service frictions to a minimum. Head: Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence. Single-point military adviser to the defence minister on matters involving all three services Service chiefs will be obliged to confine their counsel to issues pertaining to their respective services. CDS is vested with the authority: Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee. Provide directives to the three chiefs. CDS is first among equals: He enjoys the rank of Secretary within the DoD (Department of Defence) and his powers will be confined to only the revenue budget. He will perform an advisory role in the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA). Source
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Chief of Defence Staff (CDS).
• CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
• He is the head of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
• Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) of India is headed by CDS.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
• CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members.
• Function: foster greater operational synergy between the three service branches of the Indian military and keep inter-service frictions to a minimum.
• Head: Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
• Single-point military adviser to the defence minister on matters involving all three services
• Service chiefs will be obliged to confine their counsel to issues pertaining to their respective services.
• CDS is vested with the authority: Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee. Provide directives to the three chiefs.
• Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee.
• Provide directives to the three chiefs.
• CDS is first among equals: He enjoys the rank of Secretary within the DoD (Department of Defence) and his powers will be confined to only the revenue budget.
• He will perform an advisory role in the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
• CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members.
• Function: foster greater operational synergy between the three service branches of the Indian military and keep inter-service frictions to a minimum.
• Head: Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
• Single-point military adviser to the defence minister on matters involving all three services
• Service chiefs will be obliged to confine their counsel to issues pertaining to their respective services.
• CDS is vested with the authority: Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee. Provide directives to the three chiefs.
• Prioritizing inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee.
• Provide directives to the three chiefs.
• CDS is first among equals: He enjoys the rank of Secretary within the DoD (Department of Defence) and his powers will be confined to only the revenue budget.
• He will perform an advisory role in the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Indian Defence University (IDU). IDU was set up based on the recommendations of Dr K. Subrahmanyam. It is located in New Delhi. It focuses on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Progress in Military education in India: In 1967, the Chiefs of Staff Committee mooted the setting up of a Defence Services University. In 1982, a Study Group constituted by the COSC emphasized the need to set up an apex educational body for the armed forces in the form of an IDU. In the wake of the Kargil conflict, a committee was established under the chairmanship of Dr Subrahmanyam Based on its recommendations, in principle’ approval was accorded for setting up of the IDU in Gurgaon. It is not to be confused with the Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) which is focused on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF), whereas IDU is focused on the military. Source Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Progress in Military education in India: In 1967, the Chiefs of Staff Committee mooted the setting up of a Defence Services University. In 1982, a Study Group constituted by the COSC emphasized the need to set up an apex educational body for the armed forces in the form of an IDU. In the wake of the Kargil conflict, a committee was established under the chairmanship of Dr Subrahmanyam Based on its recommendations, in principle’ approval was accorded for setting up of the IDU in Gurgaon. It is not to be confused with the Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) which is focused on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF), whereas IDU is focused on the military. Source
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Defence University (IDU).
• IDU was set up based on the recommendations of Dr K. Subrahmanyam.
• It is located in New Delhi.
• It focuses on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Progress in Military education in India:
• In 1967, the Chiefs of Staff Committee mooted the setting up of a Defence Services University.
• In 1982, a Study Group constituted by the COSC emphasized the need to set up an apex educational body for the armed forces in the form of an IDU.
• In the wake of the Kargil conflict, a committee was established under the chairmanship of Dr Subrahmanyam
• Based on its recommendations, in principle’ approval was accorded for setting up of the IDU in Gurgaon.
It is not to be confused with the Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) which is focused on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF), whereas IDU is focused on the military.
Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Progress in Military education in India:
• In 1967, the Chiefs of Staff Committee mooted the setting up of a Defence Services University.
• In 1982, a Study Group constituted by the COSC emphasized the need to set up an apex educational body for the armed forces in the form of an IDU.
• In the wake of the Kargil conflict, a committee was established under the chairmanship of Dr Subrahmanyam
• Based on its recommendations, in principle’ approval was accorded for setting up of the IDU in Gurgaon.
It is not to be confused with the Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) which is focused on the police and para-military Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF), whereas IDU is focused on the military.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established under the Act. The Act does not deal with experimentation on animals for scientific purposes. Offenses under the Act are non-bailable. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960: It discusses different forms of cruelty, exceptions, and killing of a suffering animal in case any cruelty has been committed against it, so as to relieve it from further suffering. The legislative intent of the Act is to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act. This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals. It provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes. The Act enshrines the provisions relating to the exhibition of the performing animals, and offenses committed against the performing animals. Most of the offenses under the Act are bailable (the accused can seek bail from the police as a matter of right) non-cognisable (which means that the police can neither register a first information report nor investigate or effect arrest without the express permission of or directions from a competent court). Source Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960: It discusses different forms of cruelty, exceptions, and killing of a suffering animal in case any cruelty has been committed against it, so as to relieve it from further suffering. The legislative intent of the Act is to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act. This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals. It provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes. The Act enshrines the provisions relating to the exhibition of the performing animals, and offenses committed against the performing animals. Most of the offenses under the Act are bailable (the accused can seek bail from the police as a matter of right) non-cognisable (which means that the police can neither register a first information report nor investigate or effect arrest without the express permission of or directions from a competent court). Source
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
• The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established under the Act.
• The Act does not deal with experimentation on animals for scientific purposes.
• Offenses under the Act are non-bailable.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
• It discusses different forms of cruelty, exceptions, and killing of a suffering animal in case any cruelty has been committed against it, so as to relieve it from further suffering.
• The legislative intent of the Act is to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”.
• The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act.
• This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals.
• It provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes.
• The Act enshrines the provisions relating to the exhibition of the performing animals, and offenses committed against the performing animals.
Most of the offenses under the Act are bailable (the accused can seek bail from the police as a matter of right)
non-cognisable (which means that the police can neither register a first information report nor investigate or effect arrest without the express permission of or directions from a competent court).
Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
• It discusses different forms of cruelty, exceptions, and killing of a suffering animal in case any cruelty has been committed against it, so as to relieve it from further suffering.
• The legislative intent of the Act is to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”.
• The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act.
• This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals.
• It provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes.
• The Act enshrines the provisions relating to the exhibition of the performing animals, and offenses committed against the performing animals.
Most of the offenses under the Act are bailable (the accused can seek bail from the police as a matter of right)
non-cognisable (which means that the police can neither register a first information report nor investigate or effect arrest without the express permission of or directions from a competent court).
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Paryushan Parv. Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Buddhism, celebrated all over India. It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Jainism, observed by both Digambara and Shwetambar communities. Spiritual Significance: Paryushan Parv inspires individuals to cultivate virtuous qualities. It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions. It’s a time for seeking righteousness and spiritual purity, ultimately aiming for salvation. Five Duties of Paryushan: These include Samvatsari (forgiveness and reconciliation), Keshlochan (introspection and self-improvement), Pratikraman (seeking forgiveness for past wrongdoings), Penance (commitment to spiritual growth), and self-criticism and apology for past mistakes. Incorrect Solution: a) Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Jainism, observed by both Digambara and Shwetambar communities. Spiritual Significance: Paryushan Parv inspires individuals to cultivate virtuous qualities. It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions. It’s a time for seeking righteousness and spiritual purity, ultimately aiming for salvation. Five Duties of Paryushan: These include Samvatsari (forgiveness and reconciliation), Keshlochan (introspection and self-improvement), Pratikraman (seeking forgiveness for past wrongdoings), Penance (commitment to spiritual growth), and self-criticism and apology for past mistakes.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Paryushan Parv.
• Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Buddhism, celebrated all over India.
• It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Jainism, observed by both Digambara and Shwetambar communities.
Spiritual Significance: Paryushan Parv inspires individuals to cultivate virtuous qualities. It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions. It’s a time for seeking righteousness and spiritual purity, ultimately aiming for salvation.
Five Duties of Paryushan: These include Samvatsari (forgiveness and reconciliation), Keshlochan (introspection and self-improvement), Pratikraman (seeking forgiveness for past wrongdoings), Penance (commitment to spiritual growth), and self-criticism and apology for past mistakes.
Solution: a)
Paryushan Parv is a significant festival in Jainism, observed by both Digambara and Shwetambar communities.
Spiritual Significance: Paryushan Parv inspires individuals to cultivate virtuous qualities. It involves fasting, penance, meditation, and self-reflection, aiming for soul purification and vowing to avoid future transgressions. It’s a time for seeking righteousness and spiritual purity, ultimately aiming for salvation.
Five Duties of Paryushan: These include Samvatsari (forgiveness and reconciliation), Keshlochan (introspection and self-improvement), Pratikraman (seeking forgiveness for past wrongdoings), Penance (commitment to spiritual growth), and self-criticism and apology for past mistakes.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding State Legislative Council’s graduate and teacher constituencies. The Constitution of India prescribes that close to one-twelfth of MLCs in State are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers. Only those who have been graduates for at least one year are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls. Such MLCs can introduce ordinary bills, bills related to taxation and spending in the Legislative Council. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only statement 1 is correct. Under clause 3 of Article 171 of the Constitution, as close as possible to one-twelfth of MLCs are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers. Who can vote? Any university graduate can register as a voter in these elections conducted after the six-year term of a member ends. The Election Commission prepares a separate voting list from the voters list. According to Section 27 of the Representation of the People Act 1950, only those who have been graduates for at least three years or possess a certificate that the state government and the Election Commission recognise as equivalent to a degree are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls. Similarly, everyone who is ordinarily a resident in a teachers’ constituency and has at least three years of teaching experience in any educational institution recognised by the state government is entitled to vote in the election. What are these MLCs’ roles and responsibilities? They are expected to help the state government make laws and regulations based on their knowledge and experience. They can ask questions of ministers and initiate debates. They can introduce ordinary bills, but not bills related to taxation, spending etc since only the Assembly can take up money bills. Incorrect Solution: a) Only statement 1 is correct. Under clause 3 of Article 171 of the Constitution, as close as possible to one-twelfth of MLCs are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers. Who can vote? Any university graduate can register as a voter in these elections conducted after the six-year term of a member ends. The Election Commission prepares a separate voting list from the voters list. According to Section 27 of the Representation of the People Act 1950, only those who have been graduates for at least three years or possess a certificate that the state government and the Election Commission recognise as equivalent to a degree are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls. Similarly, everyone who is ordinarily a resident in a teachers’ constituency and has at least three years of teaching experience in any educational institution recognised by the state government is entitled to vote in the election. What are these MLCs’ roles and responsibilities? They are expected to help the state government make laws and regulations based on their knowledge and experience. They can ask questions of ministers and initiate debates. They can introduce ordinary bills, but not bills related to taxation, spending etc since only the Assembly can take up money bills.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding State Legislative Council’s graduate and teacher constituencies.
• The Constitution of India prescribes that close to one-twelfth of MLCs in State are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers.
• Only those who have been graduates for at least one year are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls.
• Such MLCs can introduce ordinary bills, bills related to taxation and spending in the Legislative Council.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
Under clause 3 of Article 171 of the Constitution, as close as possible to one-twelfth of MLCs are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers.
Who can vote?
Any university graduate can register as a voter in these elections conducted after the six-year term of a member ends. The Election Commission prepares a separate voting list from the voters list.
According to Section 27 of the Representation of the People Act 1950, only those who have been graduates for at least three years or possess a certificate that the state government and the Election Commission recognise as equivalent to a degree are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls.
Similarly, everyone who is ordinarily a resident in a teachers’ constituency and has at least three years of teaching experience in any educational institution recognised by the state government is entitled to vote in the election.
What are these MLCs’ roles and responsibilities?
They are expected to help the state government make laws and regulations based on their knowledge and experience. They can ask questions of ministers and initiate debates. They can introduce ordinary bills, but not bills related to taxation, spending etc since only the Assembly can take up money bills.
Solution: a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
Under clause 3 of Article 171 of the Constitution, as close as possible to one-twelfth of MLCs are to be elected by an electorate consisting solely of graduates and another one-twelfth by an electorate consisting of teachers.
Who can vote?
Any university graduate can register as a voter in these elections conducted after the six-year term of a member ends. The Election Commission prepares a separate voting list from the voters list.
According to Section 27 of the Representation of the People Act 1950, only those who have been graduates for at least three years or possess a certificate that the state government and the Election Commission recognise as equivalent to a degree are qualified to be enrolled in the voter rolls.
Similarly, everyone who is ordinarily a resident in a teachers’ constituency and has at least three years of teaching experience in any educational institution recognised by the state government is entitled to vote in the election.
What are these MLCs’ roles and responsibilities?
They are expected to help the state government make laws and regulations based on their knowledge and experience. They can ask questions of ministers and initiate debates. They can introduce ordinary bills, but not bills related to taxation, spending etc since only the Assembly can take up money bills.
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