UPSC Editorials Quiz : 21 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the new environmental norms for thermal power plants, consider the following statements: A significant majority of India’s thermal power plants, classified under Category C, are now exempt from the mandatory installation of Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) systems. The policy aims to prioritize pollution control measures in areas with higher population density and existing poor air quality. The deadlines for Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) installation are staggered, with plants in the most sensitive zones being given the longest extension period. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Category C plants, which are located outside high-risk zones, constitute 78% of the total. These plants are completely exempt from installing FGDs under the new framework. This represents a significant majority. Statement 2 is correct. The categorization directly reflects a prioritization strategy. Category A includes plants near the National Capital Region (NCR) and cities with over 1 million people, while Category B includes those near critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC). This structure clearly prioritizes stricter norms for areas with higher population density and documented pollution problems. Statement 3 is incorrect. The deadlines are staggered, but plants in the most sensitive zones (Category A) are given the earliest deadline (December 2027). Category B plants have a later deadline (December 2028), and Category C is exempt. The logic is to expedite compliance in the most critical areas, not to give them the longest extension. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Category C plants, which are located outside high-risk zones, constitute 78% of the total. These plants are completely exempt from installing FGDs under the new framework. This represents a significant majority. Statement 2 is correct. The categorization directly reflects a prioritization strategy. Category A includes plants near the National Capital Region (NCR) and cities with over 1 million people, while Category B includes those near critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC). This structure clearly prioritizes stricter norms for areas with higher population density and documented pollution problems. Statement 3 is incorrect. The deadlines are staggered, but plants in the most sensitive zones (Category A) are given the earliest deadline (December 2027). Category B plants have a later deadline (December 2028), and Category C is exempt. The logic is to expedite compliance in the most critical areas, not to give them the longest extension.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the new environmental norms for thermal power plants, consider the following statements:

• A significant majority of India’s thermal power plants, classified under Category C, are now exempt from the mandatory installation of Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) systems.

• The policy aims to prioritize pollution control measures in areas with higher population density and existing poor air quality.

• The deadlines for Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) installation are staggered, with plants in the most sensitive zones being given the longest extension period.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Category C plants, which are located outside high-risk zones, constitute 78% of the total. These plants are completely exempt from installing FGDs under the new framework. This represents a significant majority.

• Statement 2 is correct. The categorization directly reflects a prioritization strategy. Category A includes plants near the National Capital Region (NCR) and cities with over 1 million people, while Category B includes those near critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC). This structure clearly prioritizes stricter norms for areas with higher population density and documented pollution problems.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The deadlines are staggered, but plants in the most sensitive zones (Category A) are given the earliest deadline (December 2027). Category B plants have a later deadline (December 2028), and Category C is exempt. The logic is to expedite compliance in the most critical areas, not to give them the longest extension.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Regarding the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression in India, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It is available to all persons residing in India, including foreign nationals. (b) It can be restricted on the ground of 'contempt of Parliament'. (c) The right to remain silent is implicitly included within this right. (d) Any speech that incites violence is protected unless it threatens the security of the State. Correct Solution: C Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals). Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2). Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right. Option d is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense. Incorrect Solution: C Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals). Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2). Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right. Option d is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense.

#### 2. Question

Regarding the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression in India, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is available to all persons residing in India, including foreign nationals.

• (b) It can be restricted on the ground of 'contempt of Parliament'.

• (c) The right to remain silent is implicitly included within this right.

• (d) Any speech that incites violence is protected unless it threatens the security of the State.

Solution: C

• Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals).

• Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2).

• Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right.

• Option d is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense.

Solution: C

• Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Grey Hornbill: It is the smallest of all Asian hornbill species. The species is endemic to the Western Ghats and is known for the prominent casque on its bill. It is legally protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The bird adapts well to human-modified landscapes like coffee and areca nut plantations, provided there is sufficient canopy cover. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I. Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I. Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Grey Hornbill:

• It is the smallest of all Asian hornbill species.

• The species is endemic to the Western Ghats and is known for the prominent casque on its bill.

• It is legally protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• The bird adapts well to human-modified landscapes like coffee and areca nut plantations, provided there is sufficient canopy cover.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I.

• Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The recent declaration of the DPS Wetland as a Flamingo Conservation Reserve is significant primarily because: a) It is the largest wetland in Maharashtra and hosts the only breeding colony of flamingos in India. b) It serves as a critical stopover and foraging site for migratory flamingos on the Central Asian Flyway and acts as an ecological buffer for Navi Mumbai. c) The wetland was created artificially by the local community specifically for flamingo conservation. d) Its declaration as a conservation reserve completely prohibits all human activities, including fishing and tourism, in the adjacent Thane Creek. Correct Solution: B The designation of the DPS Wetland as a Flamingo Conservation Reserve holds great significance due to its strategic ecological role. The wetland is a crucial feeding and resting ground for thousands of migratory flamingos that travel along the Central Asian Flyway. It is situated adjacent to the Thane Creek Ramsar site and forms a vital part of this larger ecosystem. Furthermore, it functions as a sensitive ecological buffer for the urban landscape of Navi Mumbai, enhancing its resilience against flooding and saline water intrusion. While it is a key habitat, it is not the only breeding site in India (option a). The wetland is a natural feature whose ecosystem was revived, not artificially created for flamingos (option c). The declaration as a conservation reserve manages and protects the area but does not necessarily imply a complete ban on all activities in the entire adjacent creek (option d). Incorrect Solution: B The designation of the DPS Wetland as a Flamingo Conservation Reserve holds great significance due to its strategic ecological role. The wetland is a crucial feeding and resting ground for thousands of migratory flamingos that travel along the Central Asian Flyway. It is situated adjacent to the Thane Creek Ramsar site and forms a vital part of this larger ecosystem. Furthermore, it functions as a sensitive ecological buffer for the urban landscape of Navi Mumbai, enhancing its resilience against flooding and saline water intrusion. While it is a key habitat, it is not the only breeding site in India (option a). The wetland is a natural feature whose ecosystem was revived, not artificially created for flamingos (option c). The declaration as a conservation reserve manages and protects the area but does not necessarily imply a complete ban on all activities in the entire adjacent creek (option d).

#### 4. Question

The recent declaration of the DPS Wetland as a Flamingo Conservation Reserve is significant primarily because:

• a) It is the largest wetland in Maharashtra and hosts the only breeding colony of flamingos in India.

• b) It serves as a critical stopover and foraging site for migratory flamingos on the Central Asian Flyway and acts as an ecological buffer for Navi Mumbai.

• c) The wetland was created artificially by the local community specifically for flamingo conservation.

• d) Its declaration as a conservation reserve completely prohibits all human activities, including fishing and tourism, in the adjacent Thane Creek.

Solution: B

• The designation of the DPS Wetland as a Flamingo Conservation Reserve holds great significance due to its strategic ecological role. The wetland is a crucial feeding and resting ground for thousands of migratory flamingos that travel along the Central Asian Flyway. It is situated adjacent to the Thane Creek Ramsar site and forms a vital part of this larger ecosystem.

• Furthermore, it functions as a sensitive ecological buffer for the urban landscape of Navi Mumbai, enhancing its resilience against flooding and saline water intrusion. While it is a key habitat, it is not the only breeding site in India (option a).

• The wetland is a natural feature whose ecosystem was revived, not artificially created for flamingos (option c).

• The declaration as a conservation reserve manages and protects the area but does not necessarily imply a complete ban on all activities in the entire adjacent creek (option d).

Solution: B

• The wetland is a natural feature whose ecosystem was revived, not artificially created for flamingos (option c).

• The declaration as a conservation reserve manages and protects the area but does not necessarily imply a complete ban on all activities in the entire adjacent creek (option d).

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Super Swachh League, consider the following statements: It is a category that is open to all cities participating in the Swachh Survekshan, regardless of their past performance. The primary objective is to create a benchmark for cities that excel in sanitation on a consistent, year-on-year basis. A city’s ODF++ status is a key parameter considered for eligibility. It operates independently of the Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating system. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is highly restrictive. It is designed specifically for cities that have already demonstrated sustained excellence and consistently high ranks in previous surveys. It is not open to all participants. Statement 2 is correct. The core objective of the league is to recognize and honor consistency. By creating a premier league of high-performing cities, it aims to establish a benchmark for long-term excellence in urban sanitation, moving beyond single-year achievements. Statement 3 is correct. Key performance indicators from the standard Swachh Survekshan are used for eligibility. ODF++ status, which signifies complete sanitation including the proper management of fecal sludge, is a critical criterion, along with source segregation and waste collection efficiency. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating is directly linked to eligibility. A city must have a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or higher) to be considered for the Super Swachh League. The two frameworks are integrated, not independent. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is highly restrictive. It is designed specifically for cities that have already demonstrated sustained excellence and consistently high ranks in previous surveys. It is not open to all participants. Statement 2 is correct. The core objective of the league is to recognize and honor consistency. By creating a premier league of high-performing cities, it aims to establish a benchmark for long-term excellence in urban sanitation, moving beyond single-year achievements. Statement 3 is correct. Key performance indicators from the standard Swachh Survekshan are used for eligibility. ODF++ status, which signifies complete sanitation including the proper management of fecal sludge, is a critical criterion, along with source segregation and waste collection efficiency. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating is directly linked to eligibility. A city must have a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or higher) to be considered for the Super Swachh League. The two frameworks are integrated, not independent.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Super Swachh League, consider the following statements:

• It is a category that is open to all cities participating in the Swachh Survekshan, regardless of their past performance.

• The primary objective is to create a benchmark for cities that excel in sanitation on a consistent, year-on-year basis.

• A city’s ODF++ status is a key parameter considered for eligibility.

• It operates independently of the Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating system.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Eligibility for the Super Swachh League is highly restrictive. It is designed specifically for cities that have already demonstrated sustained excellence and consistently high ranks in previous surveys. It is not open to all participants.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core objective of the league is to recognize and honor consistency. By creating a premier league of high-performing cities, it aims to establish a benchmark for long-term excellence in urban sanitation, moving beyond single-year achievements.

• Statement 3 is correct. Key performance indicators from the standard Swachh Survekshan are used for eligibility. ODF++ status, which signifies complete sanitation including the proper management of fecal sludge, is a critical criterion, along with source segregation and waste collection efficiency.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Garbage Free City (GFC) star rating is directly linked to eligibility. A city must have a minimum GFC star rating (e.g., 3-star or higher) to be considered for the Super Swachh League. The two frameworks are integrated, not independent.

Solution: B

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