UPSC Editorials Quiz : 21 February 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following pairs of Geographical Indication (GI) products and their defining characteristics/origins: Product Defining Characteristic/Origin 1. Ambaji White Marble Metamorphic rock from Banaskantha, Gujarat, used in Dilwara Temples. 2. Meerut Bugle Brass wind instrument with origins linked to the 1857 Uprising. 3. Tungbuk Percussion instrument made of buffalo horn from Nagaland. 4. Pumtong Pulit Bamboo flute handcrafted by the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is Correct: Ambaji White Marble is a high-quality marble (metamorphic rock) from Banaskantha, Gujarat. It is famous for its use in the 11th-century Dilwara Jain Temples and recently received a GI tag. Pair 2 is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a brass wind instrument. Its production hub in Meerut (UP) traces its roots to the post-1857 military reorganization by the British, making it a unique heritage craft linked to the 1857 Uprising. Pair 3 is Incorrect: Tungbuk is a stringed instrument (not percussion) and it belongs to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim (not Nagaland). It was awarded the GI tag alongside the Pumtong Pulit. Pair 4 is Correct: Pumtong Pulit is indeed a traditional bamboo flute of the Lepcha community of Sikkim. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is Correct: Ambaji White Marble is a high-quality marble (metamorphic rock) from Banaskantha, Gujarat. It is famous for its use in the 11th-century Dilwara Jain Temples and recently received a GI tag. Pair 2 is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a brass wind instrument. Its production hub in Meerut (UP) traces its roots to the post-1857 military reorganization by the British, making it a unique heritage craft linked to the 1857 Uprising. Pair 3 is Incorrect: Tungbuk is a stringed instrument (not percussion) and it belongs to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim (not Nagaland). It was awarded the GI tag alongside the Pumtong Pulit. Pair 4 is Correct: Pumtong Pulit is indeed a traditional bamboo flute of the Lepcha community of Sikkim.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following pairs of Geographical Indication (GI) products and their defining characteristics/origins:

| Product | Defining Characteristic/Origin

1.| Ambaji White Marble | Metamorphic rock from Banaskantha, Gujarat, used in Dilwara Temples.
2.| Meerut Bugle | Brass wind instrument with origins linked to the 1857 Uprising.
3.| Tungbuk | Percussion instrument made of buffalo horn from Nagaland.
4.| Pumtong Pulit | Bamboo flute handcrafted by the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) Only three pairs

• (d) All four pairs

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is Correct: Ambaji White Marble is a high-quality marble (metamorphic rock) from Banaskantha, Gujarat. It is famous for its use in the 11th-century Dilwara Jain Temples and recently received a GI tag.

• Pair 2 is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a brass wind instrument. Its production hub in Meerut (UP) traces its roots to the post-1857 military reorganization by the British, making it a unique heritage craft linked to the 1857 Uprising.

• Pair 3 is Incorrect: Tungbuk is a stringed instrument (not percussion) and it belongs to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim (not Nagaland). It was awarded the GI tag alongside the Pumtong Pulit.

• Pair 4 is Correct: Pumtong Pulit is indeed a traditional bamboo flute of the Lepcha community of Sikkim.

Solution: C

• Pair 4 is Correct: Pumtong Pulit is indeed a traditional bamboo flute of the Lepcha community of Sikkim.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The term “Limited Mandamus”, recently seen in news in the context of Supreme Court judgments, refers to: (a) A writ issued to a lower court to transfer a case to the higher judiciary. (b) A directive to a constitutional authority to exercise its discretion and take a decision, without dictating the outcome of that decision. (c) An order prohibiting a public official from holding an office to which they are not entitled. (d) A command to the legislature to enact a specific law within a defined timeframe. Correct Solution: B Option (b) is Correct: In the context of the Governor’s assent case (Nov 2025), the Supreme Court used the concept of “Limited Mandamus.” A standard Mandamus commands an official to perform a duty. However, since the Governor has discretion (to assent, withhold, or reserve), the Court cannot command assent. It can only command that the Governor take a decision (end the inaction). This “nudge” to decide, without dictating the “what,” is the limited mandamus. Option (a) is Incorrect: This refers to Certiorari. Option (c) is Incorrect: This refers to Quo Warranto. Option (d) is Incorrect: The Courts generally cannot direct the Legislature to enact a law (Mandamus does not lie against the Legislature for legislation). Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is Correct: In the context of the Governor’s assent case (Nov 2025), the Supreme Court used the concept of “Limited Mandamus.” A standard Mandamus commands an official to perform a duty. However, since the Governor has discretion (to assent, withhold, or reserve), the Court cannot command assent. It can only command that the Governor take a decision (end the inaction). This “nudge” to decide, without dictating the “what,” is the limited mandamus. Option (a) is Incorrect: This refers to Certiorari. Option (c) is Incorrect: This refers to Quo Warranto. Option (d) is Incorrect: The Courts generally cannot direct the Legislature to enact a law (Mandamus does not lie against the Legislature for legislation).

#### 2. Question

The term “Limited Mandamus”, recently seen in news in the context of Supreme Court judgments, refers to:

• (a) A writ issued to a lower court to transfer a case to the higher judiciary.

• (b) A directive to a constitutional authority to exercise its discretion and take a decision, without dictating the outcome of that decision.

• (c) An order prohibiting a public official from holding an office to which they are not entitled.

• (d) A command to the legislature to enact a specific law within a defined timeframe.

Solution: B

• Option (b) is Correct: In the context of the Governor’s assent case (Nov 2025), the Supreme Court used the concept of “Limited Mandamus.” A standard Mandamus commands an official to perform a duty. However, since the Governor has discretion (to assent, withhold, or reserve), the Court cannot command assent. It can only command that the Governor take a decision (end the inaction). This “nudge” to decide, without dictating the “what,” is the limited mandamus.

• Option (a) is Incorrect: This refers to Certiorari.

• Option (c) is Incorrect: This refers to Quo Warranto.

• Option (d) is Incorrect: The Courts generally cannot direct the Legislature to enact a law (Mandamus does not lie against the Legislature for legislation).

Solution: B

• Option (a) is Incorrect: This refers to Certiorari.

• Option (c) is Incorrect: This refers to Quo Warranto.

• Option (d) is Incorrect: The Courts generally cannot direct the Legislature to enact a law (Mandamus does not lie against the Legislature for legislation).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘National Security Council Secretariat’ (NSCS): It operates under the Ministry of Defence and is headed by the Defence Secretary. It is the apex agency for coordinating the political, economic, energy, and strategic security policies of India. It organized the ‘Strategic Cyber Exercise’ for Central Asian countries in 2025. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NSCS operates under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), not the Ministry of Defence. It is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA). Statement 2 is Correct: The NSCS is the apex body responsible for threat assessment and policy formulation across all dimensions of national security—military, economic, energy, and internal stability. Statement 3 is Correct: In November 2025, the NSCS (along with NCIIPC) organized the Strategic Cyber Exercise with Central Asian nations (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan). This highlights its role in strategic diplomacy and security cooperation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NSCS operates under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), not the Ministry of Defence. It is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA). Statement 2 is Correct: The NSCS is the apex body responsible for threat assessment and policy formulation across all dimensions of national security—military, economic, energy, and internal stability. Statement 3 is Correct: In November 2025, the NSCS (along with NCIIPC) organized the Strategic Cyber Exercise with Central Asian nations (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan). This highlights its role in strategic diplomacy and security cooperation.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘National Security Council Secretariat’ (NSCS):

• It operates under the Ministry of Defence and is headed by the Defence Secretary.

• It is the apex agency for coordinating the political, economic, energy, and strategic security policies of India.

• It organized the ‘Strategic Cyber Exercise’ for Central Asian countries in 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NSCS operates under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), not the Ministry of Defence. It is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA).

• Statement 2 is Correct: The NSCS is the apex body responsible for threat assessment and policy formulation across all dimensions of national security—military, economic, energy, and internal stability.

Statement 3 is Correct: In November 2025, the NSCS (along with NCIIPC) organized the Strategic Cyber Exercise with Central Asian nations (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan). This highlights its role in strategic diplomacy and security cooperation.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NSCS operates under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), not the Ministry of Defence. It is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA).

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Distinguish between ‘Ramjet’ and ‘Scramjet’ technology, often mentioned in the context of missile development: A Ramjet engine can operate effectively only when the vehicle is already moving at supersonic speeds, whereas a Scramjet can start from a standstill. In a Ramjet, the air is slowed down to subsonic speeds before combustion, whereas in a Scramjet, the airflow remains supersonic throughout the engine. Scramjet technology is essential for sustaining hypersonic speeds (Mach 5 and above) in cruise missiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: Neither Ramjet nor Scramjet can start from a standstill (zero velocity). Both rely on the forward motion of the vehicle to compress air (they have no rotating compressor blades like a turbojet). They require a rocket booster to accelerate them to supersonic speeds before they can activate. Statement 2 is Correct: This is the fundamental difference. In a Ramjet, the supersonic intake air is decelerated to subsonic speeds for combustion. In a Scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet), the airflow remains supersonic throughout the combustion chamber. Statement 3 is Correct: Because Scramjets do not slow the air down (which causes drag and heating), they are capable of operating at much higher speeds (Hypersonic, >Mach 5). Ramjets typically top out around Mach 3-4. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect: Neither Ramjet nor Scramjet can start from a standstill (zero velocity). Both rely on the forward motion of the vehicle to compress air (they have no rotating compressor blades like a turbojet). They require a rocket booster to accelerate them to supersonic speeds before they can activate. Statement 2 is Correct: This is the fundamental difference. In a Ramjet, the supersonic intake air is decelerated to subsonic speeds for combustion. In a Scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet), the airflow remains supersonic throughout the combustion chamber. Statement 3 is Correct: Because Scramjets do not slow the air down (which causes drag and heating), they are capable of operating at much higher speeds (Hypersonic, >Mach 5). Ramjets typically top out around Mach 3-4.

#### 4. Question

Distinguish between ‘Ramjet’ and ‘Scramjet’ technology, often mentioned in the context of missile development:

• A Ramjet engine can operate effectively only when the vehicle is already moving at supersonic speeds, whereas a Scramjet can start from a standstill.

• In a Ramjet, the air is slowed down to subsonic speeds before combustion, whereas in a Scramjet, the airflow remains supersonic throughout the engine.

• Scramjet technology is essential for sustaining hypersonic speeds (Mach 5 and above) in cruise missiles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Neither Ramjet nor Scramjet can start from a standstill (zero velocity). Both rely on the forward motion of the vehicle to compress air (they have no rotating compressor blades like a turbojet). They require a rocket booster to accelerate them to supersonic speeds before they can activate.

• Statement 2 is Correct: This is the fundamental difference. In a Ramjet, the supersonic intake air is decelerated to subsonic speeds for combustion. In a Scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet), the airflow remains supersonic throughout the combustion chamber.

• Statement 3 is Correct: Because Scramjets do not slow the air down (which causes drag and heating), they are capable of operating at much higher speeds (Hypersonic, >Mach 5). Ramjets typically top out around Mach 3-4.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: Social media platforms are now required to remove illegal online content within a window of two to three hours after receiving an order. The rules introduce a mandatory requirement for platforms to label all photo-realistic content created using Artificial Intelligence (AI). If a platform fails to follow these rules, it may lose its “safe harbour” protection, making it legally responsible for content posted by its users. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The 2026 amendments to the IT Rules represent a major shift in digital governance. Statement 1 is correct; the rules have drastically reduced the time for removing unlawful content from the previous 24-36 hours to just two to three hours. Statement 2 is correct; it is now compulsory to prominently label all photo-realistic AI content that appears real but is synthetically generated. Statement 3 is correct; the failure to adhere to these guidelines, such as failing to remove deepfakes within the two-hour window for sensitive content, leads to the loss of “safe harbour” protection, treating the platform like a publisher. Incorrect Solution: C The 2026 amendments to the IT Rules represent a major shift in digital governance. Statement 1 is correct; the rules have drastically reduced the time for removing unlawful content from the previous 24-36 hours to just two to three hours. Statement 2 is correct; it is now compulsory to prominently label all photo-realistic AI content that appears real but is synthetically generated. Statement 3 is correct; the failure to adhere to these guidelines, such as failing to remove deepfakes within the two-hour window for sensitive content, leads to the loss of “safe harbour” protection, treating the platform like a publisher.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

• Social media platforms are now required to remove illegal online content within a window of two to three hours after receiving an order.

• The rules introduce a mandatory requirement for platforms to label all photo-realistic content created using Artificial Intelligence (AI).

• If a platform fails to follow these rules, it may lose its “safe harbour” protection, making it legally responsible for content posted by its users.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The 2026 amendments to the IT Rules represent a major shift in digital governance.

• Statement 1 is correct; the rules have drastically reduced the time for removing unlawful content from the previous 24-36 hours to just two to three hours.

• Statement 2 is correct; it is now compulsory to prominently label all photo-realistic AI content that appears real but is synthetically generated.

Statement 3 is correct; the failure to adhere to these guidelines, such as failing to remove deepfakes within the two-hour window for sensitive content, leads to the loss of “safe harbour” protection, treating the platform like a publisher.

Solution: C

• The 2026 amendments to the IT Rules represent a major shift in digital governance.

• Statement 1 is correct; the rules have drastically reduced the time for removing unlawful content from the previous 24-36 hours to just two to three hours.

• Statement 2 is correct; it is now compulsory to prominently label all photo-realistic AI content that appears real but is synthetically generated.

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