UPSC Editorials Quiz : 20 October 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005: The Act mandates that a Public Information Officer must provide the requested information within 60 days of the receipt of the request. Section 4 of the Act requires public authorities to proactively disclose information, including details of their budgets and expenditure, to the public. The Central Information Commission is empowered to impose a penalty on Public Information Officer (PIO) for the unjustified denial or delay of information. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, stipulates a time-bound response A Public Information Officer (PIO) is required to furnish the requested information within 30 days of receiving the application. For matters concerning the life or liberty of a person, this timeline is drastically reduced to 48 hours, highlighting the Act’s sensitivity to urgent matters. Statement 2 is correct. Section 4 of the RTI Act is a cornerstone provision that mandates proactive disclosure by public authorities. This section obligates government bodies to publish key information suo motu, including their organisational structure, functions, powers, duties, and financial details like budgets and expenditures. The objective is to promote transparency and reduce the need for citizens to file individual RTI applications, thereby fostering an environment of open governance. Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the Act provides the “teeth” to the legislation by incorporating a penalty provision. It empowers the Central and State Information Commissions to impose a fine on the PIO if a request is refused without reasonable cause, information is furnished with malicious intent, or there is an unreasonable delay. The penalty is levied at a rate of ₹250 per day of delay, subject to a maximum of ₹25,000. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, stipulates a time-bound response A Public Information Officer (PIO) is required to furnish the requested information within 30 days of receiving the application. For matters concerning the life or liberty of a person, this timeline is drastically reduced to 48 hours, highlighting the Act’s sensitivity to urgent matters. Statement 2 is correct. Section 4 of the RTI Act is a cornerstone provision that mandates proactive disclosure by public authorities. This section obligates government bodies to publish key information suo motu, including their organisational structure, functions, powers, duties, and financial details like budgets and expenditures. The objective is to promote transparency and reduce the need for citizens to file individual RTI applications, thereby fostering an environment of open governance. Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the Act provides the “teeth” to the legislation by incorporating a penalty provision. It empowers the Central and State Information Commissions to impose a fine on the PIO if a request is refused without reasonable cause, information is furnished with malicious intent, or there is an unreasonable delay. The penalty is levied at a rate of ₹250 per day of delay, subject to a maximum of ₹25,000.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005:

• The Act mandates that a Public Information Officer must provide the requested information within 60 days of the receipt of the request.

• Section 4 of the Act requires public authorities to proactively disclose information, including details of their budgets and expenditure, to the public.

• The Central Information Commission is empowered to impose a penalty on Public Information Officer (PIO) for the unjustified denial or delay of information.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, stipulates a time-bound response A Public Information Officer (PIO) is required to furnish the requested information within 30 days of receiving the application. For matters concerning the life or liberty of a person, this timeline is drastically reduced to 48 hours, highlighting the Act’s sensitivity to urgent matters.

• Statement 2 is correct. Section 4 of the RTI Act is a cornerstone provision that mandates proactive disclosure by public authorities. This section obligates government bodies to publish key information suo motu, including their organisational structure, functions, powers, duties, and financial details like budgets and expenditures. The objective is to promote transparency and reduce the need for citizens to file individual RTI applications, thereby fostering an environment of open governance.

• Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the Act provides the “teeth” to the legislation by incorporating a penalty provision. It empowers the Central and State Information Commissions to impose a fine on the PIO if a request is refused without reasonable cause, information is furnished with malicious intent, or there is an unreasonable delay. The penalty is levied at a rate of ₹250 per day of delay, subject to a maximum of ₹25,000.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which one of the following best describes the concept of “Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs)” often used in public health research? a) It represents the number of deaths averted through public health interventions. b) It indicates only the economic cost of diseases to society. c) It denotes the years of life gained due to medical innovations. d) It measures the overall health loss by combining premature mortality and disability burden. Correct Solution: D Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) are a composite measure of disease burden that combines Years of Life Lost (YLL) due to premature death and Years Lived with Disability (YLD). One DALY represents one lost year of “healthy life.” It is used in the Global Burden of Disease framework to compare different diseases and risk factors across populations. This measure captures both fatal and non-fatal health outcomes and helps governments allocate resources more effectively. For India, DALY estimates highlight that NCDs — especially cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, cancers, and COPD — contribute more than half of total health loss, underscoring the need for preventive action. Incorrect Solution: D Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) are a composite measure of disease burden that combines Years of Life Lost (YLL) due to premature death and Years Lived with Disability (YLD). One DALY represents one lost year of “healthy life.” It is used in the Global Burden of Disease framework to compare different diseases and risk factors across populations. This measure captures both fatal and non-fatal health outcomes and helps governments allocate resources more effectively. For India, DALY estimates highlight that NCDs — especially cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, cancers, and COPD — contribute more than half of total health loss, underscoring the need for preventive action.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following best describes the concept of “Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs)” often used in public health research?

• a) It represents the number of deaths averted through public health interventions.

• b) It indicates only the economic cost of diseases to society.

• c) It denotes the years of life gained due to medical innovations.

• d) It measures the overall health loss by combining premature mortality and disability burden.

Solution: D

• Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) are a composite measure of disease burden that combines Years of Life Lost (YLL) due to premature death and Years Lived with Disability (YLD). One DALY represents one lost year of “healthy life.” It is used in the Global Burden of Disease framework to compare different diseases and risk factors across populations.

• This measure captures both fatal and non-fatal health outcomes and helps governments allocate resources more effectively.

• For India, DALY estimates highlight that NCDs — especially cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, cancers, and COPD — contribute more than half of total health loss, underscoring the need for preventive action.

Solution: D

• This measure captures both fatal and non-fatal health outcomes and helps governments allocate resources more effectively.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the economic crisis of 1991 that precipitated the New Economic Policy: The crisis was primarily a result of the first Gulf War, which led to a sudden and unsustainable spike in global oil prices. A key indicator of the crisis was the depletion of India’s foreign exchange reserves to a level barely sufficient to cover three months of essential imports. The crisis was compounded by a high fiscal deficit, which was monetized through borrowing from the RBI, leading to high inflation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990 (the first Gulf War) was a major proximate cause. It led to a sharp increase in oil prices, which significantly increased India’s import bill. Simultaneously, it disrupted the flow of remittances from Indian workers in the Gulf region, a key source of foreign exchange. Statement 2 is incorrect. India’s foreign exchange reserves in 1991 fell to a level that was sufficient to cover only about two to three weeks of imports, not three months. The standard comfortable level for reserves is generally considered to be three months of import cover. Statement 3 is correct. The crisis was not just external; it had deep internal roots. For years, the government had been running a high fiscal deficit (expenditure exceeding revenue), which was often financed by borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India. This practice, known as monetizing the deficit, led to a rapid increase in the money supply and fueled high inflation, which reached double digits. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990 (the first Gulf War) was a major proximate cause. It led to a sharp increase in oil prices, which significantly increased India’s import bill. Simultaneously, it disrupted the flow of remittances from Indian workers in the Gulf region, a key source of foreign exchange. Statement 2 is incorrect. India’s foreign exchange reserves in 1991 fell to a level that was sufficient to cover only about two to three weeks of imports, not three months. The standard comfortable level for reserves is generally considered to be three months of import cover. Statement 3 is correct. The crisis was not just external; it had deep internal roots. For years, the government had been running a high fiscal deficit (expenditure exceeding revenue), which was often financed by borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India. This practice, known as monetizing the deficit, led to a rapid increase in the money supply and fueled high inflation, which reached double digits.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the economic crisis of 1991 that precipitated the New Economic Policy:

• The crisis was primarily a result of the first Gulf War, which led to a sudden and unsustainable spike in global oil prices.

• A key indicator of the crisis was the depletion of India’s foreign exchange reserves to a level barely sufficient to cover three months of essential imports.

• The crisis was compounded by a high fiscal deficit, which was monetized through borrowing from the RBI, leading to high inflation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990 (the first Gulf War) was a major proximate cause. It led to a sharp increase in oil prices, which significantly increased India’s import bill. Simultaneously, it disrupted the flow of remittances from Indian workers in the Gulf region, a key source of foreign exchange.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India’s foreign exchange reserves in 1991 fell to a level that was sufficient to cover only about two to three weeks of imports, not three months. The standard comfortable level for reserves is generally considered to be three months of import cover.

• Statement 3 is correct. The crisis was not just external; it had deep internal roots. For years, the government had been running a high fiscal deficit (expenditure exceeding revenue), which was often financed by borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India. This practice, known as monetizing the deficit, led to a rapid increase in the money supply and fueled high inflation, which reached double digits.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is described as a collaborative platform. Which of the following entities does it primarily aim to bring together? Governments Industry and Private Sector Financial Institutions Regional Military Alliances Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B The International Solar Alliance (ISA) functions as a multi-stakeholder platform to accelerate the global adoption of solar energy. Its success hinges on creating an ecosystem that fosters collaboration. It is a “collaborative platform for governments, industry, and financial institutions.” Governments are crucial for creating enabling policy frameworks. The industry and private sector are essential for innovation, manufacturing, and project execution. Financial institutions, including Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) and private capital, are vital for mobilizing the massive investments required to achieve the ISA’s goals. Regional military alliances (Statement 4) are not part of the ISA’s mandate or collaborative structure; its focus is on energy access, security, and climate resilience through civil and commercial means. Incorrect Solution: B The International Solar Alliance (ISA) functions as a multi-stakeholder platform to accelerate the global adoption of solar energy. Its success hinges on creating an ecosystem that fosters collaboration. It is a “collaborative platform for governments, industry, and financial institutions.” Governments are crucial for creating enabling policy frameworks. The industry and private sector are essential for innovation, manufacturing, and project execution. Financial institutions, including Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) and private capital, are vital for mobilizing the massive investments required to achieve the ISA’s goals. Regional military alliances (Statement 4) are not part of the ISA’s mandate or collaborative structure; its focus is on energy access, security, and climate resilience through civil and commercial means.

#### 4. Question

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is described as a collaborative platform. Which of the following entities does it primarily aim to bring together?

• Governments

• Industry and Private Sector

• Financial Institutions

• Regional Military Alliances

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• c) 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) functions as a multi-stakeholder platform to accelerate the global adoption of solar energy. Its success hinges on creating an ecosystem that fosters collaboration.

• It is a “collaborative platform for governments, industry, and financial institutions.” Governments are crucial for creating enabling policy frameworks.

• The industry and private sector are essential for innovation, manufacturing, and project execution.

• Financial institutions, including Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) and private capital, are vital for mobilizing the massive investments required to achieve the ISA’s goals.

• Regional military alliances (Statement 4) are not part of the ISA’s mandate or collaborative structure; its focus is on energy access, security, and climate resilience through civil and commercial means.

Solution: B

• It is a “collaborative platform for governments, industry, and financial institutions.” Governments are crucial for creating enabling policy frameworks.

• The industry and private sector are essential for innovation, manufacturing, and project execution.

• Financial institutions, including Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) and private capital, are vital for mobilizing the massive investments required to achieve the ISA’s goals.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR): It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The scheme provides for the establishment of District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) through eligible non-governmental organizations. Some specified categories of Beneficiaries undergoing treatment under NAPDDR are also eligible to apply for skill development training under the PM-DAKSH programme. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It focuses on the social justice and rehabilitation aspects of drug abuse. Statement 2 is correct. A major component of the NAPDDR is to provide financial assistance to eligible organizations, particularly NGOs, for setting up and running District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) to provide counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation services. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a provision for convergence with other government initiatives. Beneficiaries of Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs) and Outreach and Drop-In Centres (ODICs) under NAPDDR, who belong to specified categories (SCs, OBCs, EBCs, etc.), are eligible to apply for skill development training under the PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana, linking rehabilitation with economic empowerment. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It focuses on the social justice and rehabilitation aspects of drug abuse. Statement 2 is correct. A major component of the NAPDDR is to provide financial assistance to eligible organizations, particularly NGOs, for setting up and running District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) to provide counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation services. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a provision for convergence with other government initiatives. Beneficiaries of Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs) and Outreach and Drop-In Centres (ODICs) under NAPDDR, who belong to specified categories (SCs, OBCs, EBCs, etc.), are eligible to apply for skill development training under the PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana, linking rehabilitation with economic empowerment.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR):

• It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• The scheme provides for the establishment of District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) through eligible non-governmental organizations.

• Some specified categories of Beneficiaries undergoing treatment under NAPDDR are also eligible to apply for skill development training under the PM-DAKSH programme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It focuses on the social justice and rehabilitation aspects of drug abuse.

• Statement 2 is correct. A major component of the NAPDDR is to provide financial assistance to eligible organizations, particularly NGOs, for setting up and running District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) to provide counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation services.

• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a provision for convergence with other government initiatives. Beneficiaries of Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs) and Outreach and Drop-In Centres (ODICs) under NAPDDR, who belong to specified categories (SCs, OBCs, EBCs, etc.), are eligible to apply for skill development training under the PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana, linking rehabilitation with economic empowerment.

Solution: B

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