UPSC Editorials Quiz : 20 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match the following election-related articles with their provisions: Article Provision 1. Article 324 a. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha for SC/ST 2. Article 326 b. Superintendence of elections by ECI 3. Article 330 c. Voting rights based on adult suffrage 4. Article 356 d. President’s rule in a state Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d Correct Solution: D Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India. Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections. Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown. Incorrect Solution: D Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India. Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections. Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.

#### 1. Question

Match the following election-related articles with their provisions:

Article | Provision

1.Article 324 | a. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha for SC/ST
2.Article 326 | b. Superintendence of elections by ECI
3.Article 330 | c. Voting rights based on adult suffrage
4.Article 356 | d. President’s rule in a state

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

• b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

• c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

• d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Solution: D

Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India.

Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections.

Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.

Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.

Solution: D

Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India.

Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections.

Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.

Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK): The commission is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It has the authority to impose fines and sanctions on local governments for violations of manual scavenging laws. NCSK members are appointed by the President of India. The commission monitors compliance with Supreme Court directives related to the welfare of sanitation workers. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: A Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The NCSK operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and is responsible for monitoring Supreme Court directives, including compensation for sewer-related deaths. However, it does not have legal authority to impose fines or sanctions on local governments. The commission members, including the Chairperson, are appointed by the Union Government and not directly by the President of India. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The NCSK operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and is responsible for monitoring Supreme Court directives, including compensation for sewer-related deaths. However, it does not have legal authority to impose fines or sanctions on local governments. The commission members, including the Chairperson, are appointed by the Union Government and not directly by the President of India.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK):

• The commission is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

• It has the authority to impose fines and sanctions on local governments for violations of manual scavenging laws.

• NCSK members are appointed by the President of India.

• The commission monitors compliance with Supreme Court directives related to the welfare of sanitation workers.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 4 are correct.

The NCSK operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and is responsible for monitoring Supreme Court directives, including compensation for sewer-related deaths.

However, it does not have legal authority to impose fines or sanctions on local governments.

The commission members, including the Chairperson, are appointed by the Union Government and not directly by the President of India.

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 4 are correct.

The NCSK operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and is responsible for monitoring Supreme Court directives, including compensation for sewer-related deaths.

However, it does not have legal authority to impose fines or sanctions on local governments.

The commission members, including the Chairperson, are appointed by the Union Government and not directly by the President of India.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the Zamindari System in India: It led to increased agricultural productivity due to the efficient revenue collection system. It resulted in land alienation, forcing many peasants into debt and bonded labor. It was abolished immediately after India’s independence without any legal challenges. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Zamindari System did not increase agricultural productivity; instead, zamindars exploited peasants by imposing high rents, often leading to land degradation. Statement 2 is correct: The system resulted in peasant distress due to high taxes, debt, and frequent evictions. Many became landless laborers. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Zamindari System was abolished gradually through land reforms and constitutional amendments, but legal challenges, such as Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951), delayed the process. What was the Zamindari System? Introduction: Introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 under the Permanent Settlement Act, the Zamindari system made landlords (zamindars) intermediaries responsible for collecting land revenue from peasants and paying it to the British government. Revenue Collection: 89% of collected revenue went to the British, and zamindars retained 11%. Ownership Rights: Zamindars had absolute control over the land and could lease, sell, or transfer it. States Practicing Zamindari: The system was prevalent in West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Social Impact: Peasants were subjected to high rents, forced labor (begar), and frequent evictions, creating widespread rural distress. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Zamindari System did not increase agricultural productivity; instead, zamindars exploited peasants by imposing high rents, often leading to land degradation. Statement 2 is correct: The system resulted in peasant distress due to high taxes, debt, and frequent evictions. Many became landless laborers. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Zamindari System was abolished gradually through land reforms and constitutional amendments, but legal challenges, such as Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951), delayed the process. What was the Zamindari System? Introduction: Introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 under the Permanent Settlement Act, the Zamindari system made landlords (zamindars) intermediaries responsible for collecting land revenue from peasants and paying it to the British government. Revenue Collection: 89% of collected revenue went to the British, and zamindars retained 11%. Ownership Rights: Zamindars had absolute control over the land and could lease, sell, or transfer it. States Practicing Zamindari: The system was prevalent in West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Social Impact: Peasants were subjected to high rents, forced labor (begar), and frequent evictions, creating widespread rural distress.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the Zamindari System in India:

• It led to increased agricultural productivity due to the efficient revenue collection system.

• It resulted in land alienation, forcing many peasants into debt and bonded labor.

• It was abolished immediately after India’s independence without any legal challenges.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Zamindari System did not increase agricultural productivity; instead, zamindars exploited peasants by imposing high rents, often leading to land degradation.

Statement 2 is correct: The system resulted in peasant distress due to high taxes, debt, and frequent evictions. Many became landless laborers.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Zamindari System was abolished gradually through land reforms and constitutional amendments, but legal challenges, such as Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951), delayed the process.

What was the Zamindari System?

• Introduction: Introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 under the Permanent Settlement Act, the Zamindari system made landlords (zamindars) intermediaries responsible for collecting land revenue from peasants and paying it to the British government.

• Revenue Collection: 89% of collected revenue went to the British, and zamindars retained 11%.

• Ownership Rights: Zamindars had absolute control over the land and could lease, sell, or transfer it.

• States Practicing Zamindari: The system was prevalent in West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

• Social Impact: Peasants were subjected to high rents, forced labor (begar), and frequent evictions, creating widespread rural distress.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Zamindari System did not increase agricultural productivity; instead, zamindars exploited peasants by imposing high rents, often leading to land degradation.

Statement 2 is correct: The system resulted in peasant distress due to high taxes, debt, and frequent evictions. Many became landless laborers.

What was the Zamindari System?

• Revenue Collection: 89% of collected revenue went to the British, and zamindars retained 11%.

• Ownership Rights: Zamindars had absolute control over the land and could lease, sell, or transfer it.

• States Practicing Zamindari: The system was prevalent in West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

• Social Impact: Peasants were subjected to high rents, forced labor (begar), and frequent evictions, creating widespread rural distress.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Match the following gulfs of the Baltic Sea with their locations: Gulf Location A. Gulf of Bothnia 1. Between Sweden and Finland B. Gulf of Finland 2. Near Estonia, Russia, and Finland C. Gulf of Riga 3. Along the coasts of Latvia and Estonia D. Bay of Gdańsk 4. Located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia) Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Correct Solution: A A-1: The Gulf of Bothnia is located between Sweden and Finland. B-2: The Gulf of Finland lies between Estonia, Russia, and Finland. C-3: The Gulf of Riga is surrounded by Latvia and Estonia. D-4: The Bay of Gdańsk is located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia). Incorrect Solution: A A-1: The Gulf of Bothnia is located between Sweden and Finland. B-2: The Gulf of Finland lies between Estonia, Russia, and Finland. C-3: The Gulf of Riga is surrounded by Latvia and Estonia. D-4: The Bay of Gdańsk is located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia).

#### 4. Question

Match the following gulfs of the Baltic Sea with their locations:

Gulf | Location

A. Gulf of Bothnia | 1. Between Sweden and Finland

B. Gulf of Finland | 2. Near Estonia, Russia, and Finland

C. Gulf of Riga | 3. Along the coasts of Latvia and Estonia

D. Bay of Gdańsk | 4. Located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

• d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Solution: A

A-1: The Gulf of Bothnia is located between Sweden and Finland.

B-2: The Gulf of Finland lies between Estonia, Russia, and Finland.

C-3: The Gulf of Riga is surrounded by Latvia and Estonia.

D-4: The Bay of Gdańsk is located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia).

Solution: A

A-1: The Gulf of Bothnia is located between Sweden and Finland.

B-2: The Gulf of Finland lies between Estonia, Russia, and Finland.

C-3: The Gulf of Riga is surrounded by Latvia and Estonia.

D-4: The Bay of Gdańsk is located near Poland and Kaliningrad (Russia).

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The repo rate directly determines the interest rates on home loans, vehicle loans, and other commercial lending. Statement-II: A reduction in the repo rate always leads to an immediate and equal reduction in commercial lending rates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct: The repo rate affects home loans, vehicle loans, and commercial lending rates, as banks adjust their lending rates based on RBI’s policy. Statement-II is incorrect: Banks do not always pass on repo rate changes immediately. They adjust based on liquidity conditions, deposit rates, and risk factors. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct: The repo rate affects home loans, vehicle loans, and commercial lending rates, as banks adjust their lending rates based on RBI’s policy. Statement-II is incorrect: Banks do not always pass on repo rate changes immediately. They adjust based on liquidity conditions, deposit rates, and risk factors.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The repo rate directly determines the interest rates on home loans, vehicle loans, and other commercial lending. Statement-II: A reduction in the repo rate always leads to an immediate and equal reduction in commercial lending rates.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct: The repo rate affects home loans, vehicle loans, and commercial lending rates, as banks adjust their lending rates based on RBI’s policy.

Statement-II is incorrect: Banks do not always pass on repo rate changes immediately. They adjust based on liquidity conditions, deposit rates, and risk factors.

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct: The repo rate affects home loans, vehicle loans, and commercial lending rates, as banks adjust their lending rates based on RBI’s policy.

Statement-II is incorrect: Banks do not always pass on repo rate changes immediately. They adjust based on liquidity conditions, deposit rates, and risk factors.

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