UPSC Editorials Quiz : 2 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about Mycelium Bricks: Statement-I: Mycelium Bricks are gaining popularity as a sustainable alternative to traditional bricks in eco-friendly construction. Statement-II: They can be produced at room temperature, significantly reducing the carbon footprint of construction materials. Which one of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct – Mycelium Bricks are increasingly used in sustainable construction due to their eco-friendly nature. Statement-II is correct – Unlike traditional bricks, Mycelium Bricks are grown at room temperature, eliminating energy-intensive kilns and reducing CO₂ emissions. Since Statement-II explains Statement-I, option (a) is correct. What are Mycelium Bricks? Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk. Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks. Developed by: Research in sustainable construction has driven their development. Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques. Key Features: Lightweight & Strong: High strength-to-weight ratio but weaker than concrete. Thermal Insulation: Effective heat insulator, reducing energy consumption. Fire-Resistant: Naturally resistant to flames but requires treatment for long-term durability. Biodegradable: Decomposes naturally, reducing waste. Eco-Friendly Production: Low carbon footprint as it does not require high-temperature kilns. Significance of Mycelium Bricks: Reduces Carbon Footprint: Offers an alternative to high-emission clay bricks. Sustainable Construction: Aligns with green building initiatives and high-performance architecture. Potential for Mass Adoption: Suitable for interior panels, liquid filters, sports equipment, and circuit boards. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct – Mycelium Bricks are increasingly used in sustainable construction due to their eco-friendly nature. Statement-II is correct – Unlike traditional bricks, Mycelium Bricks are grown at room temperature, eliminating energy-intensive kilns and reducing CO₂ emissions. Since Statement-II explains Statement-I, option (a) is correct. What are Mycelium Bricks? Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk. Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks. Developed by: Research in sustainable construction has driven their development. Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques. Key Features: Lightweight & Strong: High strength-to-weight ratio but weaker than concrete. Thermal Insulation: Effective heat insulator, reducing energy consumption. Fire-Resistant: Naturally resistant to flames but requires treatment for long-term durability. Biodegradable: Decomposes naturally, reducing waste. Eco-Friendly Production: Low carbon footprint as it does not require high-temperature kilns. Significance of Mycelium Bricks: Reduces Carbon Footprint: Offers an alternative to high-emission clay bricks. Sustainable Construction: Aligns with green building initiatives and high-performance architecture. Potential for Mass Adoption: Suitable for interior panels, liquid filters, sports equipment, and circuit boards.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Mycelium Bricks:

Statement-I: Mycelium Bricks are gaining popularity as a sustainable alternative to traditional bricks in eco-friendly construction. Statement-II: They can be produced at room temperature, significantly reducing the carbon footprint of construction materials.

Which one of the following is correct?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct – Mycelium Bricks are increasingly used in sustainable construction due to their eco-friendly nature.

• Statement-II is correct – Unlike traditional bricks, Mycelium Bricks are grown at room temperature, eliminating energy-intensive kilns and reducing CO₂ emissions.

• Since Statement-II explains Statement-I, option (a) is correct.

• What are Mycelium Bricks?

• Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk. Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks.

• Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk.

• Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks.

• Developed by:

• Research in sustainable construction has driven their development. Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques.

• Research in sustainable construction has driven their development.

• Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques.

• Key Features:

• Lightweight & Strong: High strength-to-weight ratio but weaker than concrete. Thermal Insulation: Effective heat insulator, reducing energy consumption. Fire-Resistant: Naturally resistant to flames but requires treatment for long-term durability. Biodegradable: Decomposes naturally, reducing waste. Eco-Friendly Production: Low carbon footprint as it does not require high-temperature kilns.

• Lightweight & Strong: High strength-to-weight ratio but weaker than concrete.

• Thermal Insulation: Effective heat insulator, reducing energy consumption.

• Fire-Resistant: Naturally resistant to flames but requires treatment for long-term durability.

• Biodegradable: Decomposes naturally, reducing waste.

• Eco-Friendly Production: Low carbon footprint as it does not require high-temperature kilns.

• Significance of Mycelium Bricks:

• Reduces Carbon Footprint: Offers an alternative to high-emission clay bricks. Sustainable Construction: Aligns with green building initiatives and high-performance architecture. Potential for Mass Adoption: Suitable for interior panels, liquid filters, sports equipment, and circuit boards.

• Reduces Carbon Footprint: Offers an alternative to high-emission clay bricks.

• Sustainable Construction: Aligns with green building initiatives and high-performance architecture.

• Potential for Mass Adoption: Suitable for interior panels, liquid filters, sports equipment, and circuit boards.

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct – Mycelium Bricks are increasingly used in sustainable construction due to their eco-friendly nature.

• Statement-II is correct – Unlike traditional bricks, Mycelium Bricks are grown at room temperature, eliminating energy-intensive kilns and reducing CO₂ emissions.

• Since Statement-II explains Statement-I, option (a) is correct.

• What are Mycelium Bricks?

• Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk. Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks.

• Bioengineered construction material made from fungal mycelia, sawdust, and husk.

• Mycelium forms a fibrous network that solidifies into lightweight, durable bricks.

• Developed by:

• Research in sustainable construction has driven their development. Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques.

• Research in sustainable construction has driven their development.

• Innovators like Roha Biotech (IIT Madras Incubated) and global research institutions are refining production techniques.

• Key Features:

• Lightweight & Strong: High strength-to-weight ratio but weaker than concrete.

• Thermal Insulation: Effective heat insulator, reducing energy consumption.

• Fire-Resistant: Naturally resistant to flames but requires treatment for long-term durability.

• Biodegradable: Decomposes naturally, reducing waste.

• Eco-Friendly Production: Low carbon footprint as it does not require high-temperature kilns.

• Significance of Mycelium Bricks:

• Reduces Carbon Footprint: Offers an alternative to high-emission clay bricks.

• Sustainable Construction: Aligns with green building initiatives and high-performance architecture.

• Potential for Mass Adoption: Suitable for interior panels, liquid filters, sports equipment, and circuit boards.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Sea Dragon Statement I: Exercise Sea Dragon helps strengthen Indo-Pacific security by promoting multilateral naval patrols. Statement II: The exercise emphasizes anti-submarine warfare and uses airborne platforms for tactical training. Which one of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: d) Statement I is incorrect – SD25 is an airborne anti-submarine warfare (ASW) training exercise, not a multilateral naval patrolling initiative. Statement II is correct – The core of SD25 is focused on anti-submarine warfare using Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from allied nations, simulating sub detection and attack techniques. The emphasis is not on patrol missions, but skills enhancement through drills and competition. About Exercise Sea Dragon 2025: What it is Sea Dragon 2025 (SD25) is an annual multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise. It aims to improve interoperability, coordination, and tactical proficiency among Indo-Pacific allies. Host Nation: United States Navy’s 7th Fleet hosted the exercise. Location of Event: Conducted at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam, Western Aim of the Exercise: Strengthen maritime security and defense collaboration. Enhance submarine detection, tracking, and neutralization capabilities. Promote the concept of a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific. Key Features: Live ASWEX exercise to track real US Navy submarines. Mobile training drills using MK-30 ‘SLED’ target systems. Competitive evaluation phase with graded ASW effectiveness. Deployment of advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from each participating nation. Nations Involved: India (since 2021) with P-8I Neptune aircraft. Australia – RAAF P-8A Poseidon. Japan – JMSDF Kawasaki P-1 aircraft. South Korea – ROKN P-3 Orion. United States – P-8A Poseidon (Patrol Squadrons VP-16 & VP-47). Incorrect Solution: d) Statement I is incorrect – SD25 is an airborne anti-submarine warfare (ASW) training exercise, not a multilateral naval patrolling initiative. Statement II is correct – The core of SD25 is focused on anti-submarine warfare using Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from allied nations, simulating sub detection and attack techniques. The emphasis is not on patrol missions, but skills enhancement through drills and competition. About Exercise Sea Dragon 2025: What it is Sea Dragon 2025 (SD25) is an annual multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise. It aims to improve interoperability, coordination, and tactical proficiency among Indo-Pacific allies. Host Nation: United States Navy’s 7th Fleet hosted the exercise. Location of Event: Conducted at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam, Western Aim of the Exercise: Strengthen maritime security and defense collaboration. Enhance submarine detection, tracking, and neutralization capabilities. Promote the concept of a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific. Key Features: Live ASWEX exercise to track real US Navy submarines. Mobile training drills using MK-30 ‘SLED’ target systems. Competitive evaluation phase with graded ASW effectiveness. Deployment of advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from each participating nation. Nations Involved: India (since 2021) with P-8I Neptune aircraft. Australia – RAAF P-8A Poseidon. Japan – JMSDF Kawasaki P-1 aircraft. South Korea – ROKN P-3 Orion. United States – P-8A Poseidon (Patrol Squadrons VP-16 & VP-47).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Sea Dragon

Statement I: Exercise Sea Dragon helps strengthen Indo-Pacific security by promoting multilateral naval patrols. Statement II: The exercise emphasizes anti-submarine warfare and uses airborne platforms for tactical training.

Which one of the following is correct?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: d)

Statement I is incorrect – SD25 is an airborne anti-submarine warfare (ASW) training exercise, not a multilateral naval patrolling initiative. Statement II is correct – The core of SD25 is focused on anti-submarine warfare using Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from allied nations, simulating sub detection and attack techniques. The emphasis is not on patrol missions, but skills enhancement through drills and competition.

About Exercise Sea Dragon 2025:

• What it is

• Sea Dragon 2025 (SD25) is an annual multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise. It aims to improve interoperability, coordination, and tactical proficiency among Indo-Pacific allies.

• Sea Dragon 2025 (SD25) is an annual multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise.

• It aims to improve interoperability, coordination, and tactical proficiency among Indo-Pacific allies.

• Host Nation: United States Navy’s 7th Fleet hosted the exercise.

• Location of Event: Conducted at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam, Western

• Aim of the Exercise:

• Strengthen maritime security and defense collaboration. Enhance submarine detection, tracking, and neutralization capabilities. Promote the concept of a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific.

• Strengthen maritime security and defense collaboration.

• Enhance submarine detection, tracking, and neutralization capabilities.

• Promote the concept of a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific.

• Key Features:

• Live ASWEX exercise to track real US Navy submarines. Mobile training drills using MK-30 ‘SLED’ target systems. Competitive evaluation phase with graded ASW effectiveness. Deployment of advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from each participating nation.

• Live ASWEX exercise to track real US Navy submarines.

• Mobile training drills using MK-30 ‘SLED’ target systems.

• Competitive evaluation phase with graded ASW effectiveness.

• Deployment of advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from each participating nation.

• Nations Involved:

• India (since 2021) with P-8I Neptune aircraft. Australia – RAAF P-8A Poseidon. Japan – JMSDF Kawasaki P-1 aircraft. South Korea – ROKN P-3 Orion. United States – P-8A Poseidon (Patrol Squadrons VP-16 & VP-47).

• India (since 2021) with P-8I Neptune aircraft.

• Australia – RAAF P-8A Poseidon.

• Japan – JMSDF Kawasaki P-1 aircraft.

• South Korea – ROKN P-3 Orion.

• United States – P-8A Poseidon (Patrol Squadrons VP-16 & VP-47).

Solution: d)

About Exercise Sea Dragon 2025:

• What it is

• Sea Dragon 2025 (SD25) is an annual multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise.

• It aims to improve interoperability, coordination, and tactical proficiency among Indo-Pacific allies.

• Host Nation: United States Navy’s 7th Fleet hosted the exercise.

• Location of Event: Conducted at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam, Western

• Aim of the Exercise:

• Strengthen maritime security and defense collaboration.

• Enhance submarine detection, tracking, and neutralization capabilities.

• Promote the concept of a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific.

• Key Features:

• Live ASWEX exercise to track real US Navy submarines.

• Mobile training drills using MK-30 ‘SLED’ target systems.

• Competitive evaluation phase with graded ASW effectiveness.

• Deployment of advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) from each participating nation.

• Nations Involved:

• India (since 2021) with P-8I Neptune aircraft.

• Australia – RAAF P-8A Poseidon.

• Japan – JMSDF Kawasaki P-1 aircraft.

• South Korea – ROKN P-3 Orion.

• United States – P-8A Poseidon (Patrol Squadrons VP-16 & VP-47).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements about Article 142 of the Indian Constitution: It allows the Supreme Court to amend the Constitution if it helps in delivering complete justice. It has been invoked in environmental and electoral reforms. It serves as a constitutional safety valve in the absence of legislative action. The orders under Article 142 are binding and enforceable until overridden by subsequent legislation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect — The Supreme Court cannot amend the Constitution under Article 142. Only Parliament can do that under Article 368. Article 142 is about delivering complete justice within the framework of the Constitution. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency. It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice. Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect — The Supreme Court cannot amend the Constitution under Article 142. Only Parliament can do that under Article 368. Article 142 is about delivering complete justice within the framework of the Constitution. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency. It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice. Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Article 142 of the Indian Constitution:

• It allows the Supreme Court to amend the Constitution if it helps in delivering complete justice.

• It has been invoked in environmental and electoral reforms.

• It serves as a constitutional safety valve in the absence of legislative action.

• The orders under Article 142 are binding and enforceable until overridden by subsequent legislation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect — The Supreme Court cannot amend the Constitution under Article 142. Only Parliament can do that under Article 368. Article 142 is about delivering complete justice within the framework of the Constitution.

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

• It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency.

• It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice.

• Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation.

Solution: c)

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

• It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency.

• It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice.

• Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about decarbonisation in India: India has a national target of net zero emissions by 2070. The Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) scheme incentivizes emissions reductions in large industries. Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) is widely used in India. India’s updated NDCs include a commitment to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) India’s commitment to net-zero emissions by 2070, announced at COP26 in Glasgow, marks a significant long-term climate ambition, aligned with global decarbonisation pathways. The Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) Scheme, implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, operates under the National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). It promotes energy savings in large industries by enabling them to trade Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts), effectively incentivizing emission reductions. Additionally, India’s updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) in 2022 include a pledge to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, compared to 2005 levels—a clear indicator of progress toward cleaner growth. However, statement 3 is incorrect. While Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage (BECCS) is recognized globally as a negative emissions technology, it remains underdeveloped in India due to technological, financial, and infrastructural limitations, and is not yet widely used in domestic energy systems. Incorrect Solution: c) India’s commitment to net-zero emissions by 2070, announced at COP26 in Glasgow, marks a significant long-term climate ambition, aligned with global decarbonisation pathways. The Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) Scheme, implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, operates under the National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). It promotes energy savings in large industries by enabling them to trade Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts), effectively incentivizing emission reductions. Additionally, India’s updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) in 2022 include a pledge to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, compared to 2005 levels—a clear indicator of progress toward cleaner growth. However, statement 3 is incorrect. While Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage (BECCS) is recognized globally as a negative emissions technology, it remains underdeveloped in India due to technological, financial, and infrastructural limitations, and is not yet widely used in domestic energy systems.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about decarbonisation in India:

• India has a national target of net zero emissions by 2070.

• The Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) scheme incentivizes emissions reductions in large industries.

• Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) is widely used in India.

• India’s updated NDCs include a commitment to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

• India’s commitment to net-zero emissions by 2070, announced at COP26 in Glasgow, marks a significant long-term climate ambition, aligned with global decarbonisation pathways.

• The Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) Scheme, implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, operates under the National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). It promotes energy savings in large industries by enabling them to trade Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts), effectively incentivizing emission reductions.

• Additionally, India’s updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) in 2022 include a pledge to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, compared to 2005 levels—a clear indicator of progress toward cleaner growth.

• However, statement 3 is incorrect. While Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage (BECCS) is recognized globally as a negative emissions technology, it remains underdeveloped in India due to technological, financial, and infrastructural limitations, and is not yet widely used in domestic energy systems.

Solution: c)

• India’s commitment to net-zero emissions by 2070, announced at COP26 in Glasgow, marks a significant long-term climate ambition, aligned with global decarbonisation pathways.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following effects of prolonged heatwaves: Spike in vector-borne diseases due to warmer climates. Reduced groundwater recharge due to elevated evapotranspiration. Disruption in power grids due to increased demand. Increase in air traffic accidents due to poor visibility. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects. Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria. Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions. Statement 3 is correct: Prolonged heatwaves lead to soaring electricity demand for air conditioning and cooling, overloading power grids, often resulting in blackouts or brownouts in both urban and rural areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. Heatwaves may affect aircraft performance (e.g., reducing lift due to thinner hot air), but visibility issues typically arise from fog, smog, or storms, not from high temperatures alone. Hence, air traffic accidents linked directly to heat-induced poor visibility are extremely rare. Incorrect Solution: c) Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects. Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria. Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions. Statement 3 is correct: Prolonged heatwaves lead to soaring electricity demand for air conditioning and cooling, overloading power grids, often resulting in blackouts or brownouts in both urban and rural areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. Heatwaves may affect aircraft performance (e.g., reducing lift due to thinner hot air), but visibility issues typically arise from fog, smog, or storms, not from high temperatures alone. Hence, air traffic accidents linked directly to heat-induced poor visibility are extremely rare.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following effects of prolonged heatwaves:

• Spike in vector-borne diseases due to warmer climates.

• Reduced groundwater recharge due to elevated evapotranspiration.

• Disruption in power grids due to increased demand.

• Increase in air traffic accidents due to poor visibility.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects.

• Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria.

• Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions.

• Statement 3 is correct: Prolonged heatwaves lead to soaring electricity demand for air conditioning and cooling, overloading power grids, often resulting in blackouts or brownouts in both urban and rural areas.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Heatwaves may affect aircraft performance (e.g., reducing lift due to thinner hot air), but visibility issues typically arise from fog, smog, or storms, not from high temperatures alone. Hence, air traffic accidents linked directly to heat-induced poor visibility are extremely rare.

Solution: c)

• Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects.

• Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria.

• Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions.

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