UPSC Editorials Quiz : 2 February 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements. Statement I: Nominal GDP growth rate is a more critical indicator for the formulation of the Union Budget than the real GDP growth rate. Statement II: Nominal GDP serves as the observed starting point for calculating tax revenues and determining the government’s borrowing requirements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct; while “real” GDP (which adjusts for inflation) is often cited in upbeat reports, the “nominal” GDP (total value at current prices) is the actual figure used for budgetary planning. Statement II is also correctand provides the perfect logical reason for Statement I. To estimate tax revenues, the government must apply a tax rate to the nominal value of goods and services produced; if nominal growth is lower than anticipated, the government may face a revenue shortfall, forcing it to either cut expenditure or borrow more from the market. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I, as the budget is an exercise in managing actual currency values rather than volume growth. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct; while “real” GDP (which adjusts for inflation) is often cited in upbeat reports, the “nominal” GDP (total value at current prices) is the actual figure used for budgetary planning. Statement II is also correctand provides the perfect logical reason for Statement I. To estimate tax revenues, the government must apply a tax rate to the nominal value of goods and services produced; if nominal growth is lower than anticipated, the government may face a revenue shortfall, forcing it to either cut expenditure or borrow more from the market. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I, as the budget is an exercise in managing actual currency values rather than volume growth.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Nominal GDP growth rate is a more critical indicator for the formulation of the Union Budget than the real GDP growth rate.

Statement II: Nominal GDP serves as the observed starting point for calculating tax revenues and determining the government’s borrowing requirements.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct; while “real” GDP (which adjusts for inflation) is often cited in upbeat reports, the “nominal” GDP (total value at current prices) is the actual figure used for budgetary planning.

• Statement II is also correctand provides the perfect logical reason for Statement I. To estimate tax revenues, the government must apply a tax rate to the nominal value of goods and services produced; if nominal growth is lower than anticipated, the government may face a revenue shortfall, forcing it to either cut expenditure or borrow more from the market.

• Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I, as the budget is an exercise in managing actual currency values rather than volume growth.

Solution: A

• Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I, as the budget is an exercise in managing actual currency values rather than volume growth.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the absolute discretion to admit or reject a motion for the removal of a judge at the threshold. Statement-II: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the detailed procedure for the investigation into the misbehaviour of a judge. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Both statements are correct. Statement-I is correct because even if the required number of members (100 in LS or 50 in RS) sign the motion, the Speaker or Chairman has the power to refuse to admit it. This was seen in the case of a former CJI where the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha rejected the notice. Statement-II is correct as Article 124(5) empowers Parliament to regulate the procedure for investigation, which it did by enacting the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I. The Speaker’s discretion (S-I) is a power granted to the presiding officer to act as a gatekeeper against politically motivated motions. The Act (S-II) provides the procedural steps (like forming the 3-member committee) that follow after a motion is admitted. Incorrect Solution: B Both statements are correct. Statement-I is correct because even if the required number of members (100 in LS or 50 in RS) sign the motion, the Speaker or Chairman has the power to refuse to admit it. This was seen in the case of a former CJI where the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha rejected the notice. Statement-II is correct as Article 124(5) empowers Parliament to regulate the procedure for investigation, which it did by enacting the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I. The Speaker’s discretion (S-I) is a power granted to the presiding officer to act as a gatekeeper against politically motivated motions. The Act (S-II) provides the procedural steps (like forming the 3-member committee) that follow after a motion is admitted.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the absolute discretion to admit or reject a motion for the removal of a judge at the threshold.

Statement-II: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the detailed procedure for the investigation into the misbehaviour of a judge.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Both statements are correct. Statement-I is correct because even if the required number of members (100 in LS or 50 in RS) sign the motion, the Speaker or Chairman has the power to refuse to admit it. This was seen in the case of a former CJI where the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha rejected the notice.

• Statement-II is correct as Article 124(5) empowers Parliament to regulate the procedure for investigation, which it did by enacting the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

• However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I. The Speaker’s discretion (S-I) is a power granted to the presiding officer to act as a gatekeeper against politically motivated motions. The Act (S-II) provides the procedural steps (like forming the 3-member committee) that follow after a motion is admitted.

Solution: B

• Statement-II is correct as Article 124(5) empowers Parliament to regulate the procedure for investigation, which it did by enacting the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the types of avalanches: Slab avalanches occur when a cohesive layer of snow breaks free along a distinct fracture line and reacts as a single entity. Loose snow avalanches, also known as sluffs, originate at a point and grow wider in an inverted-V shape as they descend. Powder snow avalanches generate a turbulent aerosol cloud and are capable of reaching devastating speeds. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Avalanches are categorized based on their composition and movement. Slab avalanches are considered the most dangerous because a large, cohesive block of snow releases simultaneously. This occurs when a relatively stronger layer of snow sits atop a weaker layer, acting as a “lubricant” or “glide surface.” Loose snow avalanches (sluffs) are different as they lack internal cohesion; they usually start from a single point—often after a fresh snowfall—and pick up more snow as they slide, creating a characteristic inverted-V shape. Powder snow avalanches are a high-velocity phenomenon. They consist of dry, loose snow that mixes with air to form a turbulent dust cloud (aerosol). Because of the low friction of the air-snow mix, they can attain devastating speeds of 300 km/h, often creating a pressure wave that precedes the actual snow. Wet snow avalanches, while slower, are dangerous due to their high density and mass, often triggered by rain or rapid melting. Understanding these types is vital for disaster management and hazard zonation in the Himalayan regions, where the Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment (DGRE) monitors these risks. Incorrect Solution: C Avalanches are categorized based on their composition and movement. Slab avalanches are considered the most dangerous because a large, cohesive block of snow releases simultaneously. This occurs when a relatively stronger layer of snow sits atop a weaker layer, acting as a “lubricant” or “glide surface.” Loose snow avalanches (sluffs) are different as they lack internal cohesion; they usually start from a single point—often after a fresh snowfall—and pick up more snow as they slide, creating a characteristic inverted-V shape. Powder snow avalanches are a high-velocity phenomenon. They consist of dry, loose snow that mixes with air to form a turbulent dust cloud (aerosol). Because of the low friction of the air-snow mix, they can attain devastating speeds of 300 km/h, often creating a pressure wave that precedes the actual snow. Wet snow avalanches, while slower, are dangerous due to their high density and mass, often triggered by rain or rapid melting. Understanding these types is vital for disaster management and hazard zonation in the Himalayan regions, where the Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment (DGRE) monitors these risks.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the types of avalanches:

• Slab avalanches occur when a cohesive layer of snow breaks free along a distinct fracture line and reacts as a single entity.

• Loose snow avalanches, also known as sluffs, originate at a point and grow wider in an inverted-V shape as they descend.

• Powder snow avalanches generate a turbulent aerosol cloud and are capable of reaching devastating speeds.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Avalanches are categorized based on their composition and movement.

• Slab avalanches are considered the most dangerous because a large, cohesive block of snow releases simultaneously. This occurs when a relatively stronger layer of snow sits atop a weaker layer, acting as a “lubricant” or “glide surface.”

• Loose snow avalanches (sluffs) are different as they lack internal cohesion; they usually start from a single point—often after a fresh snowfall—and pick up more snow as they slide, creating a characteristic inverted-V shape.

• Powder snow avalanches are a high-velocity phenomenon. They consist of dry, loose snow that mixes with air to form a turbulent dust cloud (aerosol). Because of the low friction of the air-snow mix, they can attain devastating speeds of 300 km/h, often creating a pressure wave that precedes the actual snow.

• Wet snow avalanches, while slower, are dangerous due to their high density and mass, often triggered by rain or rapid melting. Understanding these types is vital for disaster management and hazard zonation in the Himalayan regions, where the Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment (DGRE) monitors these risks.

Solution: C

• Avalanches are categorized based on their composition and movement.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following Indian states has been granted the GI Tag for ‘Makhana’ (Fox Nut), and has recently launched a dedicated board to promote its export? (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Manipur (d) Odisha Correct Solution: B Bihar has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Mithila Makhana (fox nut), recognising its unique qualities and specific geographical origin in the Mithilanchal region of the state. This GI tagging helps protect the product’s identity, enhances its marketability, and supports higher pricing for growers in both domestic and international markets. Building on this momentum, the Government of India, in the Union Budget 2025–26, announced the establishment of a Makhana Board in Bihar aimed at promoting the crop’s production, processing, value addition, branding, and exports. Incorrect Solution: B Bihar has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Mithila Makhana (fox nut), recognising its unique qualities and specific geographical origin in the Mithilanchal region of the state. This GI tagging helps protect the product’s identity, enhances its marketability, and supports higher pricing for growers in both domestic and international markets. Building on this momentum, the Government of India, in the Union Budget 2025–26, announced the establishment of a Makhana Board in Bihar aimed at promoting the crop’s production, processing, value addition, branding, and exports.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following Indian states has been granted the GI Tag for ‘Makhana’ (Fox Nut), and has recently launched a dedicated board to promote its export?

• (a) West Bengal

• (c) Manipur

• (d) Odisha

Solution: B

• Bihar has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Mithila Makhana (fox nut), recognising its unique qualities and specific geographical origin in the Mithilanchal region of the state. This GI tagging helps protect the product’s identity, enhances its marketability, and supports higher pricing for growers in both domestic and international markets. Building on this momentum, the Government of India, in the Union Budget 2025–26, announced the establishment of a Makhana Board in Bihar aimed at promoting the crop’s production, processing, value addition, branding, and exports.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Digital Arrests’ and Indian Cyber Laws: ‘Digital Arrest’ is a specialized procedure under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) allowing the Enforcement Directorate to detain suspects virtually. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because “Digital Arrest” is not a legally recognised procedure under Indian law, nor does it exist under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The term “digital arrest” has emerged in public discourse due to cyber frauds where scammers impersonate police or enforcement officials and intimidate victims via video calls, falsely claiming that they are under arrest. Under Indian criminal jurisprudence, arrest must comply with the Code of Criminal Procedure and involves physical custody or legally defined detention, not virtual confinement. Any claim of lawful virtual detention by agencies like the Enforcement Directorate has no statutory backing and is legally invalid. Statement 2 is also incorrect because the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). I4C was established to strengthen coordination among law enforcement agencies, improve cybercrime investigation capacity, and operate national cybercrime reporting mechanisms, all of which fall squarely within the internal security mandate of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because “Digital Arrest” is not a legally recognised procedure under Indian law, nor does it exist under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The term “digital arrest” has emerged in public discourse due to cyber frauds where scammers impersonate police or enforcement officials and intimidate victims via video calls, falsely claiming that they are under arrest. Under Indian criminal jurisprudence, arrest must comply with the Code of Criminal Procedure and involves physical custody or legally defined detention, not virtual confinement. Any claim of lawful virtual detention by agencies like the Enforcement Directorate has no statutory backing and is legally invalid. Statement 2 is also incorrect because the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). I4C was established to strengthen coordination among law enforcement agencies, improve cybercrime investigation capacity, and operate national cybercrime reporting mechanisms, all of which fall squarely within the internal security mandate of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Digital Arrests’ and Indian Cyber Laws:

• ‘Digital Arrest’ is a specialized procedure under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) allowing the Enforcement Directorate to detain suspects virtually.

• The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because “Digital Arrest” is not a legally recognised procedure under Indian law, nor does it exist under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The term “digital arrest” has emerged in public discourse due to cyber frauds where scammers impersonate police or enforcement officials and intimidate victims via video calls, falsely claiming that they are under arrest. Under Indian criminal jurisprudence, arrest must comply with the Code of Criminal Procedure and involves physical custody or legally defined detention, not virtual confinement. Any claim of lawful virtual detention by agencies like the Enforcement Directorate has no statutory backing and is legally invalid.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect because the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). I4C was established to strengthen coordination among law enforcement agencies, improve cybercrime investigation capacity, and operate national cybercrime reporting mechanisms, all of which fall squarely within the internal security mandate of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Solution: D

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE