UPSC Editorials Quiz : 2 August 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of a Tsunami: A Tsunami’s speed is directly proportional to the depth of the ocean water it travels through. Tsunami waves are a form of shallow-water waves, irrespective of the ocean’s depth. India’s Tsunami Early Warning System relies primarily on satellite radar altimetry to detect waves in the deep ocean. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters. Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour. Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters. Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour. Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of a Tsunami:

• A Tsunami’s speed is directly proportional to the depth of the ocean water it travels through.

• Tsunami waves are a form of shallow-water waves, irrespective of the ocean’s depth.

• India’s Tsunami Early Warning System relies primarily on satellite radar altimetry to detect waves in the deep ocean.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters.

• Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Medog Dam Project: The project is located at the Great Bend of the Yarlung Zangbo river, a region characterized by low seismic activity and stable geology. It is slated to be the world’s largest hydroelectric project, surpassing the Three Gorges Dam. Its strategic location near the Indian state of Sikkim gives it significant geopolitical leverage over India’s water security. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Medog Dam is being constructed in a highly seismically active and high-rainfall zone within the Eastern Himalayas. This geographical context poses significant risks to the dam’s structural integrity and the downstream environment, contrary to the claim of stable geology. Statement 2 is correct. The planned power generation capacity of the Medog Dam is 60,000 MW. This capacity would make it the largest hydroelectric project in the world, significantly exceeding the capacity of China’s Three Gorges Dam (approximately 22,500 MW). Statement 3 is incorrect. The dam is positioned close to Upper Siang in Arunachal Pradesh, not Sikkim. The dam’s proximity to the border region provides it with hydrological and geopolitical leverage over India, particularly concerning the flow of the Brahmaputra River. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Medog Dam is being constructed in a highly seismically active and high-rainfall zone within the Eastern Himalayas. This geographical context poses significant risks to the dam’s structural integrity and the downstream environment, contrary to the claim of stable geology. Statement 2 is correct. The planned power generation capacity of the Medog Dam is 60,000 MW. This capacity would make it the largest hydroelectric project in the world, significantly exceeding the capacity of China’s Three Gorges Dam (approximately 22,500 MW). Statement 3 is incorrect. The dam is positioned close to Upper Siang in Arunachal Pradesh, not Sikkim. The dam’s proximity to the border region provides it with hydrological and geopolitical leverage over India, particularly concerning the flow of the Brahmaputra River.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Medog Dam Project:

• The project is located at the Great Bend of the Yarlung Zangbo river, a region characterized by low seismic activity and stable geology.

• It is slated to be the world’s largest hydroelectric project, surpassing the Three Gorges Dam.

• Its strategic location near the Indian state of Sikkim gives it significant geopolitical leverage over India’s water security.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Medog Dam is being constructed in a highly seismically active and high-rainfall zone within the Eastern Himalayas. This geographical context poses significant risks to the dam’s structural integrity and the downstream environment, contrary to the claim of stable geology.

• Statement 2 is correct. The planned power generation capacity of the Medog Dam is 60,000 MW. This capacity would make it the largest hydroelectric project in the world, significantly exceeding the capacity of China’s Three Gorges Dam (approximately 22,500 MW).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The dam is positioned close to Upper Siang in Arunachal Pradesh, not Sikkim. The dam’s proximity to the border region provides it with hydrological and geopolitical leverage over India, particularly concerning the flow of the Brahmaputra River.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Match the following small cat species with their primary habitat types as identified in the ‘Status of Small Cats in Tiger Landscapes of India’ report. Column I (Species) Column II (Primary Habitat) A. Fishing Cat 1. Dry to moist deciduous forests B. Rusty-Spotted Cat 2. Wetlands and riverine areas C. Leopard Cat 3. Dense forests of North East India D. Jungle Cat 4. Moist forests and Himalayan foothills Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (b) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-1 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: C Fishing Cat: This species is a habitat specialist. Its survival is intrinsically linked to wetlands, riverine ecosystems, and mangroves, such as those found in the Terai region and the Sundarbans. Thus, A matches with 2. Rusty-Spotted Cat: The report notes its presence in mixed deciduous forests, often in the interior parts. This corresponds to the broader category of deciduous forests. Thus, B matches with 1. Leopard Cat: This species is primarily found in moist forests, with significant populations in the Himalayan foothills and the North East. Thus, C matches with 4. Jungle Cat: This is the most widespread and resilient of the small cats studied. Its habitat is widespread, ranging from dry to moist deciduous forests across India. Thus, D also matches with 1. Incorrect Solution: C Fishing Cat: This species is a habitat specialist. Its survival is intrinsically linked to wetlands, riverine ecosystems, and mangroves, such as those found in the Terai region and the Sundarbans. Thus, A matches with 2. Rusty-Spotted Cat: The report notes its presence in mixed deciduous forests, often in the interior parts. This corresponds to the broader category of deciduous forests. Thus, B matches with 1. Leopard Cat: This species is primarily found in moist forests, with significant populations in the Himalayan foothills and the North East. Thus, C matches with 4. Jungle Cat: This is the most widespread and resilient of the small cats studied. Its habitat is widespread, ranging from dry to moist deciduous forests across India. Thus, D also matches with 1.

#### 3. Question

Match the following small cat species with their primary habitat types as identified in the ‘Status of Small Cats in Tiger Landscapes of India’ report.

Column I (Species) | Column II (Primary Habitat)

A. Fishing Cat | 1. Dry to moist deciduous forests

B. Rusty-Spotted Cat | 2. Wetlands and riverine areas

C. Leopard Cat | 3. Dense forests of North East India

D. Jungle Cat | 4. Moist forests and Himalayan foothills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

• (b) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

• (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-1

• (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Solution: C

• Fishing Cat: This species is a habitat specialist. Its survival is intrinsically linked to wetlands, riverine ecosystems, and mangroves, such as those found in the Terai region and the Sundarbans. Thus, A matches with 2.

• Rusty-Spotted Cat: The report notes its presence in mixed deciduous forests, often in the interior parts. This corresponds to the broader category of deciduous forests. Thus, B matches with 1.

• Leopard Cat: This species is primarily found in moist forests, with significant populations in the Himalayan foothills and the North East. Thus, C matches with 4.

• Jungle Cat: This is the most widespread and resilient of the small cats studied. Its habitat is widespread, ranging from dry to moist deciduous forests across India. Thus, D also matches with 1.

Solution: C

• Leopard Cat: This species is primarily found in moist forests, with significant populations in the Himalayan foothills and the North East. Thus, C matches with 4.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission, which of the following statements are correct? It is the first satellite mission to use dual-frequency (L-band and S-band) radars for Earth observation. The satellite has been placed in a geostationary orbit to continuously monitor the Indian subcontinent. ISRO’s contribution includes the S-band radar, the GSLV-F16 launcher, and the deployable reflector antenna. The mission’s data will be proprietary and accessible only to Indian and U.S. government agencies for strategic purposes. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of NISAR is that it is the first satellite to use both L-band (provided by NASA) and S-band (provided by ISRO) radar frequencies. This dual-frequency capability enhances its ability to observe a wider range of Earth surface changes with greater detail. Statement 2 is incorrect. NISAR has been placed in a Sun-synchronous polar orbit at an altitude of 747 km, not a geostationary orbit. A polar orbit allows it to scan the entire globe with a 12-day revisit cycle, which is essential for its objective of global monitoring of land and ice surfaces. Geostationary orbits are used for continuous monitoring of a single region, typically for communication or weather satellites. Statement 3 is incorrect. While ISRO provided the S-band radar and the GSLV-F16 launcher, the deployable boom and reflector antenna were contributed by NASA, not ISRO. Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission follows an open data policy. This is a significant aspect of its contribution to global science, as it supports developing nations and researchers worldwide in Earth sciences, climate action, and disaster management. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of NISAR is that it is the first satellite to use both L-band (provided by NASA) and S-band (provided by ISRO) radar frequencies. This dual-frequency capability enhances its ability to observe a wider range of Earth surface changes with greater detail. Statement 2 is incorrect. NISAR has been placed in a Sun-synchronous polar orbit at an altitude of 747 km, not a geostationary orbit. A polar orbit allows it to scan the entire globe with a 12-day revisit cycle, which is essential for its objective of global monitoring of land and ice surfaces. Geostationary orbits are used for continuous monitoring of a single region, typically for communication or weather satellites. Statement 3 is incorrect. While ISRO provided the S-band radar and the GSLV-F16 launcher, the deployable boom and reflector antenna were contributed by NASA, not ISRO. Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission follows an open data policy. This is a significant aspect of its contribution to global science, as it supports developing nations and researchers worldwide in Earth sciences, climate action, and disaster management.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission, which of the following statements are correct?

• It is the first satellite mission to use dual-frequency (L-band and S-band) radars for Earth observation.

• The satellite has been placed in a geostationary orbit to continuously monitor the Indian subcontinent.

• ISRO’s contribution includes the S-band radar, the GSLV-F16 launcher, and the deployable reflector antenna.

• The mission’s data will be proprietary and accessible only to Indian and U.S. government agencies for strategic purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of NISAR is that it is the first satellite to use both L-band (provided by NASA) and S-band (provided by ISRO) radar frequencies. This dual-frequency capability enhances its ability to observe a wider range of Earth surface changes with greater detail.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. NISAR has been placed in a Sun-synchronous polar orbit at an altitude of 747 km, not a geostationary orbit. A polar orbit allows it to scan the entire globe with a 12-day revisit cycle, which is essential for its objective of global monitoring of land and ice surfaces. Geostationary orbits are used for continuous monitoring of a single region, typically for communication or weather satellites.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While ISRO provided the S-band radar and the GSLV-F16 launcher, the deployable boom and reflector antenna were contributed by NASA, not ISRO.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission follows an open data policy. This is a significant aspect of its contribution to global science, as it supports developing nations and researchers worldwide in Earth sciences, climate action, and disaster management.

Solution: B

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While ISRO provided the S-band radar and the GSLV-F16 launcher, the deployable boom and reflector antenna were contributed by NASA, not ISRO.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the composition and functioning of an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) under the POSH Act, 2013, consider the following statements: The committee must be presided over by a senior-level female employee from the organization. The ICC is mandated to complete its inquiry into a complaint within a period of 30 days. The inclusion of an external member from an NGO or with social/legal expertise is optional but recommended. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved. Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved. Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the composition and functioning of an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) under the POSH Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

• The committee must be presided over by a senior-level female employee from the organization.

• The ICC is mandated to complete its inquiry into a complaint within a period of 30 days.

• The inclusion of an external member from an NGO or with social/legal expertise is optional but recommended.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings.

Solution: B

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