UPSC Editorials Quiz : 19 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the new exemption policy for thermal power plants in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct? The policy mandates uniform deadlines for the installation of Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems across all thermal power plants in the country to ensure equitable pollution control. Power plants located in critically polluted areas or non-attainment cities are completely exempt from installing FGDs to avoid financial burden. The categorization of power plants is based on their geographical location relative to densely populated or polluted zones. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy does not mandate uniform deadlines. It creates three distinct categories (A, B, and C) with different compliance timelines. For instance, Category A plants (near NCR/major cities) have a deadline of December 2027, while Category B plants have a deadline of December 2028, and Category C is exempt. This tiered approach is the opposite of a uniform mandate. Statement 2 is incorrect. Power plants in critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC) fall under Category B. They are not exempt; instead, their FGD installation is subject to expert review with a deadline of December 2028. It is the Category C plants, located in other areas, that are granted a complete exemption. Statement 3 is correct. The framework explicitly classifies plants into three categories based on their proximity to high-risk zones. Category A includes plants near the NCR and cities with over a million people. Category B covers those near CPAs and NACs. Category C comprises plants in other, less polluted areas. This classification is fundamentally based on geographical location and associated pollution risk. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy does not mandate uniform deadlines. It creates three distinct categories (A, B, and C) with different compliance timelines. For instance, Category A plants (near NCR/major cities) have a deadline of December 2027, while Category B plants have a deadline of December 2028, and Category C is exempt. This tiered approach is the opposite of a uniform mandate. Statement 2 is incorrect. Power plants in critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC) fall under Category B. They are not exempt; instead, their FGD installation is subject to expert review with a deadline of December 2028. It is the Category C plants, located in other areas, that are granted a complete exemption. Statement 3 is correct. The framework explicitly classifies plants into three categories based on their proximity to high-risk zones. Category A includes plants near the NCR and cities with over a million people. Category B covers those near CPAs and NACs. Category C comprises plants in other, less polluted areas. This classification is fundamentally based on geographical location and associated pollution risk.

#### 1. Question

Consider the new exemption policy for thermal power plants in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• The policy mandates uniform deadlines for the installation of Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems across all thermal power plants in the country to ensure equitable pollution control.

• Power plants located in critically polluted areas or non-attainment cities are completely exempt from installing FGDs to avoid financial burden.

• The categorization of power plants is based on their geographical location relative to densely populated or polluted zones.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) None of the above

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy does not mandate uniform deadlines. It creates three distinct categories (A, B, and C) with different compliance timelines. For instance, Category A plants (near NCR/major cities) have a deadline of December 2027, while Category B plants have a deadline of December 2028, and Category C is exempt. This tiered approach is the opposite of a uniform mandate.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Power plants in critically polluted areas (CPA) and non-attainment cities (NAC) fall under Category B. They are not exempt; instead, their FGD installation is subject to expert review with a deadline of December 2028. It is the Category C plants, located in other areas, that are granted a complete exemption.

• Statement 3 is correct. The framework explicitly classifies plants into three categories based on their proximity to high-risk zones. Category A includes plants near the NCR and cities with over a million people. Category B covers those near CPAs and NACs. Category C comprises plants in other, less polluted areas. This classification is fundamentally based on geographical location and associated pollution risk.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech in India: Statement I: The Constitution of India guarantees the absolute and unrestricted right to freedom of speech and expression to all its citizens. Statement II: The judiciary has the power to review the legislative and executive actions that restrict free speech. Statement III: The freedom of the press is explicitly mentioned and guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong. Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action. Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong. Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action. Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech in India:

Statement I: The Constitution of India guarantees the absolute and unrestricted right to freedom of speech and expression to all its citizens.

Statement II: The judiciary has the power to review the legislative and executive actions that restrict free speech.

Statement III: The freedom of the press is explicitly mentioned and guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) II only

• (b) I and III only

• (c) II and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong.

• Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action.

• Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the AIM4NatuRe initiative, which one of the following statements is correct? a) It is a joint initiative of the FAO and UNESCO aimed at conserving forest ecosystems exclusively. b) The initiative's primary funding is provided by the Green Climate Fund to support the Paris Agreement's goals. c) It focuses on leveraging satellite technology and data analysis to monitor the restoration of all types of ecosystems, including wetlands and grasslands. d) The initiative primarily supports developed countries in establishing standardized data formats for biodiversity reporting. Correct Solution: C The AIM4NatuRe (Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration) initiative is a global program launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) with significant funding from the United Kingdom. Its scope extends beyond just forests to encompass all ecosystems, such as wetlands, grasslands, and marine areas. This aligns with its core objective of supporting Target 2 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which calls for the restoration of at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030. A key feature of the initiative is its reliance on cutting-edge technology, including satellite monitoring and advanced data analysis, to create a harmonized global dataset on restoration. This data-driven approach enhances transparency and accountability. The program also has a strong focus on capacity development for all countries, particularly addressing data and reporting gaps identified by developing nations. It includes pilot projects to support the monitoring efforts of Indigenous Peoples, making it an inclusive and globally oriented initiative. Incorrect Solution: C The AIM4NatuRe (Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration) initiative is a global program launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) with significant funding from the United Kingdom. Its scope extends beyond just forests to encompass all ecosystems, such as wetlands, grasslands, and marine areas. This aligns with its core objective of supporting Target 2 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which calls for the restoration of at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030. A key feature of the initiative is its reliance on cutting-edge technology, including satellite monitoring and advanced data analysis, to create a harmonized global dataset on restoration. This data-driven approach enhances transparency and accountability. The program also has a strong focus on capacity development for all countries, particularly addressing data and reporting gaps identified by developing nations. It includes pilot projects to support the monitoring efforts of Indigenous Peoples, making it an inclusive and globally oriented initiative.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the AIM4NatuRe initiative, which one of the following statements is correct?

• a) It is a joint initiative of the FAO and UNESCO aimed at conserving forest ecosystems exclusively.

• b) The initiative's primary funding is provided by the Green Climate Fund to support the Paris Agreement's goals.

• c) It focuses on leveraging satellite technology and data analysis to monitor the restoration of all types of ecosystems, including wetlands and grasslands.

• d) The initiative primarily supports developed countries in establishing standardized data formats for biodiversity reporting.

Solution: C

• The AIM4NatuRe (Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration) initiative is a global program launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) with significant funding from the United Kingdom. Its scope extends beyond just forests to encompass all ecosystems, such as wetlands, grasslands, and marine areas. This aligns with its core objective of supporting Target 2 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which calls for the restoration of at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030.

• A key feature of the initiative is its reliance on cutting-edge technology, including satellite monitoring and advanced data analysis, to create a harmonized global dataset on restoration. This data-driven approach enhances transparency and accountability.

The program also has a strong focus on capacity development for all countries, particularly addressing data and reporting gaps identified by developing nations. It includes pilot projects to support the monitoring efforts of Indigenous Peoples, making it an inclusive and globally oriented initiative.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans): It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List due to the illegal pet trade. Its natural habitat includes arid and semi-arid regions such as thorn scrub forests and grasslands in India and Sri Lanka. It is granted the highest level of legal protection in India under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade. Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade. Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans):

• It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List due to the illegal pet trade.

• Its natural habitat includes arid and semi-arid regions such as thorn scrub forests and grasslands in India and Sri Lanka.

• It is granted the highest level of legal protection in India under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade.

• Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka.

Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following best describes the UNESCO BIOCOM programme implemented in Madagascar? a) A research initiative to sequence the genomes of endemic flora and fauna in protected areas. b) A community-driven project that links biodiversity conservation with socio-economic empowerment by providing vocational training. c) A government-led enforcement program to eradicate illegal logging and mining through increased militarized patrols. d) An international fund that provides direct cash transfers to communities living near protected areas. Correct Solution: B The UNESCO BIOCOM (Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development) programme is a flagship initiative focused on a holistic, community-centered approach to conservation. Its core strategy is to reduce human pressure on fragile ecosystems, such as the Montagne des Français Reserve, by creating alternative, sustainable livelihoods. This is achieved by providing vocational training to local youth, especially women and school dropouts, in fields like masonry, eco-tourism, and basketry. By creating viable economic alternatives, the program reduces the community’s dependence on unsustainable practices like slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. It also empowers communities through local governance systems. Incorrect Solution: B The UNESCO BIOCOM (Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development) programme is a flagship initiative focused on a holistic, community-centered approach to conservation. Its core strategy is to reduce human pressure on fragile ecosystems, such as the Montagne des Français Reserve, by creating alternative, sustainable livelihoods. This is achieved by providing vocational training to local youth, especially women and school dropouts, in fields like masonry, eco-tourism, and basketry. By creating viable economic alternatives, the program reduces the community’s dependence on unsustainable practices like slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. It also empowers communities through local governance systems.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following best describes the UNESCO BIOCOM programme implemented in Madagascar?

• a) A research initiative to sequence the genomes of endemic flora and fauna in protected areas.

• b) A community-driven project that links biodiversity conservation with socio-economic empowerment by providing vocational training.

• c) A government-led enforcement program to eradicate illegal logging and mining through increased militarized patrols.

• d) An international fund that provides direct cash transfers to communities living near protected areas.

Solution: B

• The UNESCO BIOCOM (Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development) programme is a flagship initiative focused on a holistic, community-centered approach to conservation. Its core strategy is to reduce human pressure on fragile ecosystems, such as the Montagne des Français Reserve, by creating alternative, sustainable livelihoods.

• This is achieved by providing vocational training to local youth, especially women and school dropouts, in fields like masonry, eco-tourism, and basketry. By creating viable economic alternatives, the program reduces the community’s dependence on unsustainable practices like slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. It also empowers communities through local governance systems.

Solution: B

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