UPSC Editorials Quiz : 19 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction’ (BBNJ) Agreement, which is set to enter into force in 2026: It is a legally binding international instrument under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). The agreement establishes a framework for the creation of large-scale marine protected areas (MPAs) in the high seas. India has ratified the agreement, thereby incorporating its provisions into the domestic Maritime Zones Act. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Correct:The BBNJ Agreement is a legally binding instrument. It was developed within the framework of UNCLOS (often called the Constitution of the Oceans) to address the regulatory gap for biodiversity in the high seas. Statement 2 is Correct:One of the core pillars of the BBNJ is the establishment of Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs), including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs). This is crucial for achieving the global “30×30” target (protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030). Statement 3 is Incorrect: While India has signedthe BBNJ Agreement (showing intent), it has not yet ratified Domestic legislation for ratification is still pending. Furthermore, the BBNJ applies to areas beyond national jurisdiction; while it complements domestic laws, its primary enforceability is on the high seas, not within the EEZ governed by the Maritime Zones Act. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Correct:The BBNJ Agreement is a legally binding instrument. It was developed within the framework of UNCLOS (often called the Constitution of the Oceans) to address the regulatory gap for biodiversity in the high seas. Statement 2 is Correct:One of the core pillars of the BBNJ is the establishment of Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs), including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs). This is crucial for achieving the global “30×30” target (protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030). Statement 3 is Incorrect: While India has signedthe BBNJ Agreement (showing intent), it has not yet ratified Domestic legislation for ratification is still pending. Furthermore, the BBNJ applies to areas beyond national jurisdiction; while it complements domestic laws, its primary enforceability is on the high seas, not within the EEZ governed by the Maritime Zones Act.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction’ (BBNJ) Agreement, which is set to enter into force in 2026:

• It is a legally binding international instrument under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

• The agreement establishes a framework for the creation of large-scale marine protected areas (MPAs) in the high seas.

• India has ratified the agreement, thereby incorporating its provisions into the domestic Maritime Zones Act.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Correct:The BBNJ Agreement is a legally binding instrument. It was developed within the framework of UNCLOS (often called the Constitution of the Oceans) to address the regulatory gap for biodiversity in the high seas.

• Statement 2 is Correct:One of the core pillars of the BBNJ is the establishment of Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs), including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs). This is crucial for achieving the global “30×30” target (protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030).

• Statement 3 is Incorrect: While India has signedthe BBNJ Agreement (showing intent), it has not yet ratified Domestic legislation for ratification is still pending. Furthermore, the BBNJ applies to areas beyond national jurisdiction; while it complements domestic laws, its primary enforceability is on the high seas, not within the EEZ governed by the Maritime Zones Act.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the certification of films in India and the Cinematograph Act, 1952: The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a constitutional body established under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India. Following the abolition of the Film Certificate Appellate Tribunal (FCAT), the appellate jurisdiction lies directly with the High Courts. The Act empowers the Central Government to suspend the exhibition of a certified film if it is likely to cause a breach of public order. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None of the above Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect:The CBFC is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and derives its authority from the Cinematograph Act, 1952. While Article 19(2) provides the grounds for reasonable restrictions on speech (which film censorship relies on), the body itself is not created by the Constitution. Statement 2 is Correct:The Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021, abolished the FCAT. Filmmakers now have to approach the High Courts directly for relief against CBFC cuts or refusals. Statement 3 is Correct:Section 13 of the Cinematograph Act empowers the Central Government to suspend the exhibition of a certified film (deeming it uncertified) for a specific period if it believes the film is being exhibited in a manner likely to cause a breach of the peace. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect:The CBFC is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and derives its authority from the Cinematograph Act, 1952. While Article 19(2) provides the grounds for reasonable restrictions on speech (which film censorship relies on), the body itself is not created by the Constitution. Statement 2 is Correct:The Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021, abolished the FCAT. Filmmakers now have to approach the High Courts directly for relief against CBFC cuts or refusals. Statement 3 is Correct:Section 13 of the Cinematograph Act empowers the Central Government to suspend the exhibition of a certified film (deeming it uncertified) for a specific period if it believes the film is being exhibited in a manner likely to cause a breach of the peace.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the certification of films in India and the Cinematograph Act, 1952:

• The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a constitutional body established under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India.

• Following the abolition of the Film Certificate Appellate Tribunal (FCAT), the appellate jurisdiction lies directly with the High Courts.

• The Act empowers the Central Government to suspend the exhibition of a certified film if it is likely to cause a breach of public order.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

• (d) None of the above

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect:The CBFC is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and derives its authority from the Cinematograph Act, 1952. While Article 19(2) provides the grounds for reasonable restrictions on speech (which film censorship relies on), the body itself is not created by the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is Correct:The Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021, abolished the FCAT. Filmmakers now have to approach the High Courts directly for relief against CBFC cuts or refusals.

• Statement 3 is Correct:Section 13 of the Cinematograph Act empowers the Central Government to suspend the exhibition of a certified film (deeming it uncertified) for a specific period if it believes the film is being exhibited in a manner likely to cause a breach of the peace.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the recent medical evacuation protocols in space missions, consider the following statements: The ‘Dragon Endeavour’ spacecraft used for the recent emergency evacuation from the International Space Station (ISS) is a joint development of NASA and ISRO. Under the Outer Space Treaty, the medical data of astronauts must be made public to ensure transparency in international cooperation. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dragon Endeavour spacecraft is part of SpaceX’s Crew Dragon programme and is developed by SpaceX in partnership with NASA under the Commercial Crew Program. ISRO has no role in the design, development, or operation of Dragon Endeavour. While ISRO collaborates with NASA in scientific and research domains, human-rated spacecraft like Crew Dragon are not joint NASA–ISRO products. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Outer Space Treaty lays down broad principles such as peaceful use of outer space, non-appropriation, and state responsibility. It does not mandate the public disclosure of astronauts’ personal or medical data. Medical information of astronauts is governed by privacy norms, national laws, and specific inter-agency agreements related to the International Space Station, not by compulsory transparency under the Outer Space Treaty. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dragon Endeavour spacecraft is part of SpaceX’s Crew Dragon programme and is developed by SpaceX in partnership with NASA under the Commercial Crew Program. ISRO has no role in the design, development, or operation of Dragon Endeavour. While ISRO collaborates with NASA in scientific and research domains, human-rated spacecraft like Crew Dragon are not joint NASA–ISRO products. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Outer Space Treaty lays down broad principles such as peaceful use of outer space, non-appropriation, and state responsibility. It does not mandate the public disclosure of astronauts’ personal or medical data. Medical information of astronauts is governed by privacy norms, national laws, and specific inter-agency agreements related to the International Space Station, not by compulsory transparency under the Outer Space Treaty.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the recent medical evacuation protocols in space missions, consider the following statements:

• The ‘Dragon Endeavour’ spacecraft used for the recent emergency evacuation from the International Space Station (ISS) is a joint development of NASA and ISRO.

• Under the Outer Space Treaty, the medical data of astronauts must be made public to ensure transparency in international cooperation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dragon Endeavour spacecraft is part of SpaceX’s Crew Dragon programme and is developed by SpaceX in partnership with NASA under the Commercial Crew Program. ISRO has no role in the design, development, or operation of Dragon Endeavour. While ISRO collaborates with NASA in scientific and research domains, human-rated spacecraft like Crew Dragon are not joint NASA–ISRO products.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Outer Space Treaty lays down broad principles such as peaceful use of outer space, non-appropriation, and state responsibility. It does not mandate the public disclosure of astronauts’ personal or medical data. Medical information of astronauts is governed by privacy norms, national laws, and specific inter-agency agreements related to the International Space Station, not by compulsory transparency under the Outer Space Treaty.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The ‘Commercial Realizability Test’, recently seen in the news in the context of a Supreme Court judgment, is used to determine: a) The solvency of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) before merger. b) The taxability of share substitution as business income during company amalgamation. c) The viability of public-private partnership (PPP) projects in the infrastructure sector. d) The classification of assets as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) by commercial banks. Correct Solution: B The Commercial Realizability Test has emerged from judicial interpretation in taxation jurisprudence, particularly in cases dealing with corporate restructuring such as amalgamations and share swaps. In its recent ruling, the Supreme Court of India applied this test to examine whether the benefit arising from share substitution during an amalgamation has a real, tangible, and commercially realizable value, or whether it is merely a notional accounting entry. The test essentially asks whether the taxpayer has obtained something that can be commercially exploited, monetised, or converted into economic gain in the real world. If the gain lacks such commercial realizability, it cannot be treated as business income for taxation purposes. This approach aligns with the broader principle that income tax is levied on real income and not on hypothetical or illusory gains. Incorrect Solution: B The Commercial Realizability Test has emerged from judicial interpretation in taxation jurisprudence, particularly in cases dealing with corporate restructuring such as amalgamations and share swaps. In its recent ruling, the Supreme Court of India applied this test to examine whether the benefit arising from share substitution during an amalgamation has a real, tangible, and commercially realizable value, or whether it is merely a notional accounting entry. The test essentially asks whether the taxpayer has obtained something that can be commercially exploited, monetised, or converted into economic gain in the real world. If the gain lacks such commercial realizability, it cannot be treated as business income for taxation purposes. This approach aligns with the broader principle that income tax is levied on real income and not on hypothetical or illusory gains.

#### 4. Question

The ‘Commercial Realizability Test’, recently seen in the news in the context of a Supreme Court judgment, is used to determine:

• a) The solvency of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) before merger.

• b) The taxability of share substitution as business income during company amalgamation.

• c) The viability of public-private partnership (PPP) projects in the infrastructure sector.

• d) The classification of assets as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) by commercial banks.

Solution: B

• The Commercial Realizability Test has emerged from judicial interpretation in taxation jurisprudence, particularly in cases dealing with corporate restructuring such as amalgamations and share swaps. In its recent ruling, the Supreme Court of India applied this test to examine whether the benefit arising from share substitution during an amalgamation has a real, tangible, and commercially realizable value, or whether it is merely a notional accounting entry.

• The test essentially asks whether the taxpayer has obtained something that can be commercially exploited, monetised, or converted into economic gain in the real world. If the gain lacks such commercial realizability, it cannot be treated as business income for taxation purposes. This approach aligns with the broader principle that income tax is levied on real income and not on hypothetical or illusory gains.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): The NCAP targets a reduction of 40% in particulate matter concentration by 2026, taking 2020 as the base year. It is a statutory programme mandated under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. The programme focuses on ‘non-attainment cities’ which are identified based on their failure to meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect:While the target has been revised to “up to 40% reduction by 2025-26,” the base year is 2017, not 2020. Statement 2 is Incorrect:The NCAP is a “time-bound, national-level strategy,” but it is not notified under the Air Act, 1981 or the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It does not have statutory backing in the same way the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) does. It is a scheme/programme, not a law. Statement 3 is Correct:The core focus of NCAP is on 131 “non-attainment cities” (NACs). These cities are defined as those that did not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for a period of five consecutive years (2011-2015). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect:While the target has been revised to “up to 40% reduction by 2025-26,” the base year is 2017, not 2020. Statement 2 is Incorrect:The NCAP is a “time-bound, national-level strategy,” but it is not notified under the Air Act, 1981 or the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It does not have statutory backing in the same way the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) does. It is a scheme/programme, not a law. Statement 3 is Correct:The core focus of NCAP is on 131 “non-attainment cities” (NACs). These cities are defined as those that did not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for a period of five consecutive years (2011-2015).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):

• The NCAP targets a reduction of 40% in particulate matter concentration by 2026, taking 2020 as the base year.

• It is a statutory programme mandated under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

• The programme focuses on ‘non-attainment cities’ which are identified based on their failure to meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is Incorrect:While the target has been revised to “up to 40% reduction by 2025-26,” the base year is 2017, not 2020.

• Statement 2 is Incorrect:The NCAP is a “time-bound, national-level strategy,” but it is not notified under the Air Act, 1981 or the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It does not have statutory backing in the same way the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) does. It is a scheme/programme, not a law.

• Statement 3 is Correct:The core focus of NCAP is on 131 “non-attainment cities” (NACs). These cities are defined as those that did not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for a period of five consecutive years (2011-2015).

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is Incorrect:While the target has been revised to “up to 40% reduction by 2025-26,” the base year is 2017, not 2020.

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