UPSC Editorials Quiz : 19 December 2024

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding soil degradation in hilly areas like Uttarakhand: Soil degradation is caused mainly by landslides and deforestation. Flood-induced salinity ingress is a prominent issue in these areas. Overgrazing is a significant factor in soil erosion in Uttarakhand. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together. Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand. Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together. Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand. Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding soil degradation in hilly areas like Uttarakhand:

• Soil degradation is caused mainly by landslides and deforestation.

• Flood-induced salinity ingress is a prominent issue in these areas.

• Overgrazing is a significant factor in soil erosion in Uttarakhand.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together.

Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing.

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about Io’s (one of Jupiter’s moons) role in planetary science: Io’s volcanic activity is a direct indicator of Earth-like geological conditions on super-Earths. Io provides insights into tidal heating, helping us understand icy moons like Europa and Enceladus. Io’s atmosphere is composed primarily of nitrogen, similar to Earth’s. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Statement 1: Incorrect. While Io’s volcanic activity is extreme, it does not indicate Earth-like conditions; rather, it helps study geologically active exoplanets. Statement 2: Correct. Io’s tidal heating offers insights into similar processes on icy moons like Europa and Enceladus. Statement 3: Incorrect. Io’s thin atmosphere is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide, not nitrogen. About Io Moon: What It Is: Io is Jupiter’s third-largest moon, about the size of Earth’s Moon, known for having over 400 active volcanoes, making it the most volcanically active body in the solar system. Why Volcanic Activity Is Higher: Io’s elliptical orbit around Jupiter creates tidal flexing,generating immense heat inside the moon. This heat melts Io’s interior, powering its volcanic eruptions and lava flows. Separate magma chambers, rather than a global magma ocean, drive the activity. Significance: Io provides insights into tidal heating,influencing theories about other celestial bodies like Europa and Enceladus. The study of Io’s volcanic activity helps understand exoplanets and super-Earths with extreme geological conditions. Moons of Jupiter: Jupiter has 95 confirmed moons, the most famous being the Galilean moons—Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto. Io is the innermost of these moons, with a dynamic surface shaped by its intense volcanic activity. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1: Incorrect. While Io’s volcanic activity is extreme, it does not indicate Earth-like conditions; rather, it helps study geologically active exoplanets. Statement 2: Correct. Io’s tidal heating offers insights into similar processes on icy moons like Europa and Enceladus. Statement 3: Incorrect. Io’s thin atmosphere is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide, not nitrogen. About Io Moon: What It Is: Io is Jupiter’s third-largest moon, about the size of Earth’s Moon, known for having over 400 active volcanoes, making it the most volcanically active body in the solar system. Why Volcanic Activity Is Higher: Io’s elliptical orbit around Jupiter creates tidal flexing,generating immense heat inside the moon. This heat melts Io’s interior, powering its volcanic eruptions and lava flows. Separate magma chambers, rather than a global magma ocean, drive the activity. Significance: Io provides insights into tidal heating,influencing theories about other celestial bodies like Europa and Enceladus. The study of Io’s volcanic activity helps understand exoplanets and super-Earths with extreme geological conditions. Moons of Jupiter: Jupiter has 95 confirmed moons, the most famous being the Galilean moons—Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto. Io is the innermost of these moons, with a dynamic surface shaped by its intense volcanic activity.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Io’s (one of Jupiter’s moons) role in planetary science:

• Io’s volcanic activity is a direct indicator of Earth-like geological conditions on super-Earths.

• Io provides insights into tidal heating, helping us understand icy moons like Europa and Enceladus.

• Io’s atmosphere is composed primarily of nitrogen, similar to Earth’s.

Which of the above statements is correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Statement 1: Incorrect. While Io’s volcanic activity is extreme, it does not indicate Earth-like conditions; rather, it helps study geologically active exoplanets.

Statement 2: Correct. Io’s tidal heating offers insights into similar processes on icy moons like Europa and Enceladus.

Statement 3: Incorrect. Io’s thin atmosphere is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide, not nitrogen.

About Io Moon:

• What It Is: Io is Jupiter’s third-largest moon, about the size of Earth’s Moon, known for having over 400 active volcanoes, making it the most volcanically active body in the solar system.

Why Volcanic Activity Is Higher:

• Io’s elliptical orbit around Jupiter creates tidal flexing,generating immense heat inside the moon.

• This heat melts Io’s interior, powering its volcanic eruptions and lava flows.

• Separate magma chambers, rather than a global magma ocean, drive the activity.

Significance:

• Io provides insights into tidal heating,influencing theories about other celestial bodies like Europa and Enceladus.

• The study of Io’s volcanic activity helps understand exoplanets and super-Earths with extreme geological conditions.

Moons of Jupiter: Jupiter has 95 confirmed moons, the most famous being the Galilean moons—Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto. Io is the innermost of these moons, with a dynamic surface shaped by its intense volcanic activity.

Solution: b)

Statement 1: Incorrect. While Io’s volcanic activity is extreme, it does not indicate Earth-like conditions; rather, it helps study geologically active exoplanets.

Statement 2: Correct. Io’s tidal heating offers insights into similar processes on icy moons like Europa and Enceladus.

Statement 3: Incorrect. Io’s thin atmosphere is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide, not nitrogen.

About Io Moon:

Why Volcanic Activity Is Higher:

• Io’s elliptical orbit around Jupiter creates tidal flexing,generating immense heat inside the moon.

• This heat melts Io’s interior, powering its volcanic eruptions and lava flows.

• Separate magma chambers, rather than a global magma ocean, drive the activity.

Significance:

• Io provides insights into tidal heating,influencing theories about other celestial bodies like Europa and Enceladus.

• The study of Io’s volcanic activity helps understand exoplanets and super-Earths with extreme geological conditions.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following initiatives provides free health insurance coverage to ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) workers? a) National Health Insurance Scheme b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana c) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana d) Ayushman Bharat and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Correct Solution: d) ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) workers are provided with health and life insurance coverage under specific government initiatives to ensure their well-being and financial security. They are covered for health insurance under Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme aimed at providing comprehensive healthcare benefits to the underprivileged and vulnerable sections, including healthcare workers. This scheme allows them access to cashless treatment at empaneled hospitals. Additionally, ASHA workers are included in the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), which offers life insurance coverage, ensuring financial support to their families in case of untimely demise. Incorrect Solution: d) ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) workers are provided with health and life insurance coverage under specific government initiatives to ensure their well-being and financial security. They are covered for health insurance under Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme aimed at providing comprehensive healthcare benefits to the underprivileged and vulnerable sections, including healthcare workers. This scheme allows them access to cashless treatment at empaneled hospitals. Additionally, ASHA workers are included in the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), which offers life insurance coverage, ensuring financial support to their families in case of untimely demise.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following initiatives provides free health insurance coverage to ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) workers?

• a) National Health Insurance Scheme

• b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana

• c) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

• d) Ayushman Bharat and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana

Solution: d)

ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) workers are provided with health and life insurance coverage under specific government initiatives to ensure their well-being and financial security. They are covered for health insurance under Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme aimed at providing comprehensive healthcare benefits to the underprivileged and vulnerable sections, including healthcare workers. This scheme allows them access to cashless treatment at empaneled hospitals.

Additionally, ASHA workers are included in the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), which offers life insurance coverage, ensuring financial support to their families in case of untimely demise.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the removal of Most Favored Nation (MFN) status: There is no formal procedure under the WTO to revoke MFN status. Revoking MFN status allows countries to impose discriminatory tariffs or restrictions. Special treatment agreements for developing nations are exceptions to MFN rules. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons. Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces. Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons. Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces. Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the removal of Most Favored Nation (MFN) status:

• There is no formal procedure under the WTO to revoke MFN status.

• Revoking MFN status allows countries to impose discriminatory tariffs or restrictions.

• Special treatment agreements for developing nations are exceptions to MFN rules.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons.

Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces.

Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following statements are true regarding the National Waterways under Jalvahak initiative? NW1 corresponds to River Ganga, which facilitates cargo movement between Kolkata and Patna. NW2 involves River Brahmaputra, connecting major locations in Assam. NW3 refers to River Barak in northeastern India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. Features: Incentive for Long Haul Cargo: Offers up to 35% reimbursement on operating costs for cargo transported over 300 km via waterways. Validity: Initially valid for three years. National Waterways Covered: NW1: River Ganga. NW2: River Brahmaputra. NW16: River Barak. Scheduled Service: Fixed-day sailings between key locations like Kolkata, Patna, Varanasi, and Pandu (Assam). Transit Times: Transit durations are predefined, ensuring timely delivery. Modal Shift Target: Aim to achieve 800 million tonne-kilometres of cargo movement by 2027. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. Features: Incentive for Long Haul Cargo: Offers up to 35% reimbursement on operating costs for cargo transported over 300 km via waterways. Validity: Initially valid for three years. National Waterways Covered: NW1: River Ganga. NW2: River Brahmaputra. NW16: River Barak. Scheduled Service: Fixed-day sailings between key locations like Kolkata, Patna, Varanasi, and Pandu (Assam). Transit Times: Transit durations are predefined, ensuring timely delivery. Modal Shift Target: Aim to achieve 800 million tonne-kilometres of cargo movement by 2027.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements are true regarding the National Waterways under Jalvahak initiative?

• NW1 corresponds to River Ganga, which facilitates cargo movement between Kolkata and Patna.

• NW2 involves River Brahmaputra, connecting major locations in Assam.

• NW3 refers to River Barak in northeastern India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Features:

• Incentive for Long Haul Cargo: Offers up to 35% reimbursement on operating costs for cargo transported over 300 km via waterways.

• Validity: Initially valid for three years.

• National Waterways Covered: NW1: River Ganga. NW2: River Brahmaputra. NW16: River Barak.

• NW1: River Ganga.

• NW2: River Brahmaputra.

• NW16: River Barak.

• Scheduled Service: Fixed-day sailings between key locations like Kolkata, Patna, Varanasi, and Pandu (Assam).

• Transit Times: Transit durations are predefined, ensuring timely delivery.

• Modal Shift Target: Aim to achieve 800 million tonne-kilometres of cargo movement by 2027.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Features:

• Incentive for Long Haul Cargo: Offers up to 35% reimbursement on operating costs for cargo transported over 300 km via waterways.

• Validity: Initially valid for three years.

• National Waterways Covered: NW1: River Ganga. NW2: River Brahmaputra. NW16: River Barak.

• NW1: River Ganga.

• NW2: River Brahmaputra.

• NW16: River Barak.

• Scheduled Service: Fixed-day sailings between key locations like Kolkata, Patna, Varanasi, and Pandu (Assam).

• Transit Times: Transit durations are predefined, ensuring timely delivery.

• Modal Shift Target: Aim to achieve 800 million tonne-kilometres of cargo movement by 2027.

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