UPSC Editorials Quiz : 18 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the reasonable restrictions on the Right to Free Speech under the Indian Constitution: The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are explicitly mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution. Any restriction imposed must be subjected to judicial review to determine its reasonableness. The term ‘public order’ as a ground for restriction was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression. The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order. Incorrect Solution: C The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression. The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the reasonable restrictions on the Right to Free Speech under the Indian Constitution:

• The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are explicitly mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

• Any restriction imposed must be subjected to judicial review to determine its reasonableness.

• The term ‘public order’ as a ground for restriction was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.

• The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression.

• The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems, consider the following statements: Statement I: FGD systems are primarily designed to capture and remove Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the flue gases of coal-fired thermal power plants. Statement II: The installation of FGD systems helps in mitigating the formation of secondary PM2.5 pollutants, which are a major component of air pollution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents. Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze. Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents. Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze. Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems, consider the following statements:

Statement I: FGD systems are primarily designed to capture and remove Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the flue gases of coal-fired thermal power plants.

Statement II: The installation of FGD systems helps in mitigating the formation of secondary PM2.5 pollutants, which are a major component of air pollution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents.

• Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze.

• Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding inequality in India: India’s income Gini coefficient is lower than its wealth Gini coefficient, indicating that disparities in earnings are less severe than in asset ownership. The Palma ratio is a necessary supplement to the Gini coefficient as it specifically highlights the income share of the top 10% compared to the bottom 40%. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The income Gini coefficient for India is reported as 0.61, while the wealth Gini is 0.75. A higher Gini coefficient signifies greater inequality. Therefore, this data indicates that the concentration of asset ownership (wealth) is significantly more extreme than the inequality in earnings and wages (income). Statement 2 is correct. The Gini coefficient is an aggregate measure and can obscure the specifics of wealth or income distribution, particularly at the extreme ends. It doesn’t reveal how much wealth is held by the top 1% or the bottom 50%. The Palma ratio (and other metrics like the P90/P10 ratio or Theil index) offers a more granular view by comparing the income or wealth shares of the richest and poorest segments of the population, thereby providing a clearer picture of the intensity of inequality. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The income Gini coefficient for India is reported as 0.61, while the wealth Gini is 0.75. A higher Gini coefficient signifies greater inequality. Therefore, this data indicates that the concentration of asset ownership (wealth) is significantly more extreme than the inequality in earnings and wages (income). Statement 2 is correct. The Gini coefficient is an aggregate measure and can obscure the specifics of wealth or income distribution, particularly at the extreme ends. It doesn’t reveal how much wealth is held by the top 1% or the bottom 50%. The Palma ratio (and other metrics like the P90/P10 ratio or Theil index) offers a more granular view by comparing the income or wealth shares of the richest and poorest segments of the population, thereby providing a clearer picture of the intensity of inequality.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding inequality in India:

• India’s income Gini coefficient is lower than its wealth Gini coefficient, indicating that disparities in earnings are less severe than in asset ownership.

• The Palma ratio is a necessary supplement to the Gini coefficient as it specifically highlights the income share of the top 10% compared to the bottom 40%.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The income Gini coefficient for India is reported as 0.61, while the wealth Gini is 0.75. A higher Gini coefficient signifies greater inequality. Therefore, this data indicates that the concentration of asset ownership (wealth) is significantly more extreme than the inequality in earnings and wages (income).

Statement 2 is correct. The Gini coefficient is an aggregate measure and can obscure the specifics of wealth or income distribution, particularly at the extreme ends. It doesn’t reveal how much wealth is held by the top 1% or the bottom 50%. The Palma ratio (and other metrics like the P90/P10 ratio or Theil index) offers a more granular view by comparing the income or wealth shares of the richest and poorest segments of the population, thereby providing a clearer picture of the intensity of inequality.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG): The NMCG is a statutory body established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched exclusively by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to foster collaboration among cities located only along the Ganga River basin. The Executive Committee of the NMCG is headed by the Union Minister for Jal Shakti and has the authority to approve projects of any financial value. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, on 12th August 2011. It is the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council, which is a statutory body, but the NMCG itself is not. Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a collaborative platform, but it was launched jointly by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Furthermore, its membership is open to all river cities across India, not just those in the Ganga basin. The alliance started with 30 members, including cities like Pune and Chennai, which are outside the Ganga basin. Statement 3 is incorrect. The two-tier management structure of the NMCG consists of a Governing Council and an Executive Committee. Both are headed by the Director General, NMCG, not the Union Minister. The Executive Committee has been delegated financial powers to approve projects up to a value of ₹1,000 crore, not an unlimited amount. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, on 12th August 2011. It is the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council, which is a statutory body, but the NMCG itself is not. Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a collaborative platform, but it was launched jointly by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Furthermore, its membership is open to all river cities across India, not just those in the Ganga basin. The alliance started with 30 members, including cities like Pune and Chennai, which are outside the Ganga basin. Statement 3 is incorrect. The two-tier management structure of the NMCG consists of a Governing Council and an Executive Committee. Both are headed by the Director General, NMCG, not the Union Minister. The Executive Committee has been delegated financial powers to approve projects up to a value of ₹1,000 crore, not an unlimited amount.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

• The NMCG is a statutory body established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched exclusively by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to foster collaboration among cities located only along the Ganga River basin.

• The Executive Committee of the NMCG is headed by the Union Minister for Jal Shakti and has the authority to approve projects of any financial value.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, on 12th August 2011. It is the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council, which is a statutory body, but the NMCG itself is not.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a collaborative platform, but it was launched jointly by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Furthermore, its membership is open to all river cities across India, not just those in the Ganga basin. The alliance started with 30 members, including cities like Pune and Chennai, which are outside the Ganga basin.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The two-tier management structure of the NMCG consists of a Governing Council and an Executive Committee. Both are headed by the Director General, NMCG, not the Union Minister. The Executive Committee has been delegated financial powers to approve projects up to a value of ₹1,000 crore, not an unlimited amount.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Match the following protected areas with the state they are primarily located in: List-I (Protected Area) List-II (State) A. Nagarahole National Park 1. Odisha B. Valmiki Tiger Reserve 2. Uttar Pradesh C. Dudhwa National Park 3. Karnataka D. Similipal National Park 4. Bihar Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 Correct Solution: B Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses. Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal. Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park. Incorrect Solution: B Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses. Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal. Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

#### 5. Question

Match the following protected areas with the state they are primarily located in:

List-I (Protected Area) | List-II (State)

A. Nagarahole National Park | 1. Odisha

B. Valmiki Tiger Reserve | 2. Uttar Pradesh

C. Dudhwa National Park | 3. Karnataka

D. Similipal National Park | 4. Bihar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

• b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

• c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

• d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Solution: B

• Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

• Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses.

• Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal.

• Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

Solution: B

• Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

• Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

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