UPSC Editorials Quiz : 17 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, consider the following statements: The report indicates that at the current rate of progress, global gender parity is projected to be achieved within the next 50 years. The report is a United Nations-mandated publication aimed at tracking progress on Sustainable Development Goal 5. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The report states that achieving full gender parity will take 123 years at the current pace, which is significantly longer than the 50 years mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF), an independent international organization, not the United Nations. While its objectives align with SDG 5 (Gender Equality), it is not a UN-mandated publication. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The report states that achieving full gender parity will take 123 years at the current pace, which is significantly longer than the 50 years mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF), an independent international organization, not the United Nations. While its objectives align with SDG 5 (Gender Equality), it is not a UN-mandated publication.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, consider the following statements:

• The report indicates that at the current rate of progress, global gender parity is projected to be achieved within the next 50 years.

• The report is a United Nations-mandated publication aimed at tracking progress on Sustainable Development Goal 5.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Statement 1 is incorrect. The report states that achieving full gender parity will take 123 years at the current pace, which is significantly longer than the 50 years mentioned.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF), an independent international organization, not the United Nations. While its objectives align with SDG 5 (Gender Equality), it is not a UN-mandated publication.

Solution: D

Statement 1 is incorrect. The report states that achieving full gender parity will take 123 years at the current pace, which is significantly longer than the 50 years mentioned.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the aftermath of the Santhal Rebellion: The leaders of the rebellion, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were exiled to the Andaman Islands. The British government created a separate administrative unit called the Santhal Parganas. The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was enacted to prevent the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region. Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region. Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the aftermath of the Santhal Rebellion:

• The leaders of the rebellion, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were exiled to the Andaman Islands.

• The British government created a separate administrative unit called the Santhal Parganas.

• The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was enacted to prevent the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising.

• Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region.

• Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Scheme for Promotion of Registration of Employers and Employees (SPREE) 202: Statement-I: The SPREE 2025 scheme is expected to significantly advance the formalization of India’s labour force. Statement-II: The scheme provides a penalty-free, one-time opportunity for employers to register their informal and contractual workers under the ESI social security net. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. A major policy objective in India is to formalize the economy and the workforce. By bringing more workers under a formal social security framework like ESI, the SPREE 2025 scheme directly contributes to this goal of labour formalization. Statement-II is correct. The core mechanism of the scheme is to act as an amnesty offer. It removes the primary deterrent for employers—the fear of being penalized for past non-compliance—by guaranteeing no retrospective action. This encourages them to voluntarily register their hitherto informal workers. Relationship: Statement-II explains how Statement-I is achieved. The process of labour formalization mentioned in Statement-I is facilitated by the specific amnesty-based, penalty-free registration drive described in Statement-II. The latter is the direct cause leading to the intended effect in the former. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. A major policy objective in India is to formalize the economy and the workforce. By bringing more workers under a formal social security framework like ESI, the SPREE 2025 scheme directly contributes to this goal of labour formalization. Statement-II is correct. The core mechanism of the scheme is to act as an amnesty offer. It removes the primary deterrent for employers—the fear of being penalized for past non-compliance—by guaranteeing no retrospective action. This encourages them to voluntarily register their hitherto informal workers. Relationship: Statement-II explains how Statement-I is achieved. The process of labour formalization mentioned in Statement-I is facilitated by the specific amnesty-based, penalty-free registration drive described in Statement-II. The latter is the direct cause leading to the intended effect in the former. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Scheme for Promotion of Registration of Employers and Employees (SPREE) 202:

Statement-I: The SPREE 2025 scheme is expected to significantly advance the formalization of India’s labour force.

Statement-II: The scheme provides a penalty-free, one-time opportunity for employers to register their informal and contractual workers under the ESI social security net.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. A major policy objective in India is to formalize the economy and the workforce. By bringing more workers under a formal social security framework like ESI, the SPREE 2025 scheme directly contributes to this goal of labour formalization.

• Statement-II is correct. The core mechanism of the scheme is to act as an amnesty offer. It removes the primary deterrent for employers—the fear of being penalized for past non-compliance—by guaranteeing no retrospective action. This encourages them to voluntarily register their hitherto informal workers.

Relationship: Statement-II explains how Statement-I is achieved. The process of labour formalization mentioned in Statement-I is facilitated by the specific amnesty-based, penalty-free registration drive described in Statement-II. The latter is the direct cause leading to the intended effect in the former. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the Fourth International Financing for Development Conference (FfD4), consider the following statements: The conference is hosted by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund. It aims to lay the groundwork for coordinated climate actions leading up to COP30. One of the innovative financing tools proposed at the conference includes taxing private jets and financial flows. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The conference is a United Nations-led global forum, conducted under the aegis of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). While institutions like the World Bank and IMF participate, they are not the hosts. Statement 2 is correct. The conference is strategically positioned to build financial momentum and align global economic governance with climate agendas. It lays the groundwork for coordinated actions that will be taken up at subsequent climate conferences, specifically the “Baku to Belem” (B2B) roadmap leading to COP30. Statement 3 is correct. The proposal include innovative financing mechanisms to generate non-debt burdensome climate finance. Specifically, it mentions the idea of “Global Solidarity Levies,” which includes taxes on high-emission luxuries like private jets and on financial flows. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The conference is a United Nations-led global forum, conducted under the aegis of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). While institutions like the World Bank and IMF participate, they are not the hosts. Statement 2 is correct. The conference is strategically positioned to build financial momentum and align global economic governance with climate agendas. It lays the groundwork for coordinated actions that will be taken up at subsequent climate conferences, specifically the “Baku to Belem” (B2B) roadmap leading to COP30. Statement 3 is correct. The proposal include innovative financing mechanisms to generate non-debt burdensome climate finance. Specifically, it mentions the idea of “Global Solidarity Levies,” which includes taxes on high-emission luxuries like private jets and on financial flows.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Fourth International Financing for Development Conference (FfD4), consider the following statements:

• The conference is hosted by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

• It aims to lay the groundwork for coordinated climate actions leading up to COP30.

• One of the innovative financing tools proposed at the conference includes taxing private jets and financial flows.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The conference is a United Nations-led global forum, conducted under the aegis of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). While institutions like the World Bank and IMF participate, they are not the hosts.

• Statement 2 is correct. The conference is strategically positioned to build financial momentum and align global economic governance with climate agendas. It lays the groundwork for coordinated actions that will be taken up at subsequent climate conferences, specifically the “Baku to Belem” (B2B) roadmap leading to COP30.

Statement 3 is correct. The proposal include innovative financing mechanisms to generate non-debt burdensome climate finance. Specifically, it mentions the idea of “Global Solidarity Levies,” which includes taxes on high-emission luxuries like private jets and on financial flows.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the functions of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements: It gives in-principle approval to the Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP). It categorises acquisition proposals under various procurement categories. It oversees the evaluation of field trials and performance assessments of military equipment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The DAC is responsible for giving an in-principle nod to the Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP), which is a 15-year roadmap for the development of the armed forces. This plan outlines the capability requirements of the military over a long-term horizon, and the DAC’s approval is crucial for aligning procurement decisions with strategic objectives. Statement 2 is correct: A significant function of the DAC is to categorise capital acquisition proposals. This includes classifying them under categories such as ‘Buy (Indian-IDDM)’, ‘Buy (Indian)’, ‘Buy and Make (Indian)’, and ‘Buy (Global)’. This categorisation is vital for promoting indigenous manufacturing and achieving self-reliance in the defence sector, a key pillar of the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative. Statement 3 is correct: The DAC’s role extends beyond according initial approvals. It also has an oversight function in the procurement process, which includes monitoring the progress of field trial evaluations and performance assessments of the equipment being procured. This ensures that the assets acquired by the armed forces meet the specified operational requirements and quality standards. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The DAC is responsible for giving an in-principle nod to the Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP), which is a 15-year roadmap for the development of the armed forces. This plan outlines the capability requirements of the military over a long-term horizon, and the DAC’s approval is crucial for aligning procurement decisions with strategic objectives. Statement 2 is correct: A significant function of the DAC is to categorise capital acquisition proposals. This includes classifying them under categories such as ‘Buy (Indian-IDDM)’, ‘Buy (Indian)’, ‘Buy and Make (Indian)’, and ‘Buy (Global)’. This categorisation is vital for promoting indigenous manufacturing and achieving self-reliance in the defence sector, a key pillar of the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative. Statement 3 is correct: The DAC’s role extends beyond according initial approvals. It also has an oversight function in the procurement process, which includes monitoring the progress of field trial evaluations and performance assessments of the equipment being procured. This ensures that the assets acquired by the armed forces meet the specified operational requirements and quality standards.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the functions of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:

• It gives in-principle approval to the Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP).

• It categorises acquisition proposals under various procurement categories.

• It oversees the evaluation of field trials and performance assessments of military equipment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The DAC is responsible for giving an in-principle nod to the Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP), which is a 15-year roadmap for the development of the armed forces. This plan outlines the capability requirements of the military over a long-term horizon, and the DAC’s approval is crucial for aligning procurement decisions with strategic objectives.

• Statement 2 is correct: A significant function of the DAC is to categorise capital acquisition proposals. This includes classifying them under categories such as ‘Buy (Indian-IDDM)’, ‘Buy (Indian)’, ‘Buy and Make (Indian)’, and ‘Buy (Global)’. This categorisation is vital for promoting indigenous manufacturing and achieving self-reliance in the defence sector, a key pillar of the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative.

• Statement 3 is correct: The DAC’s role extends beyond according initial approvals. It also has an oversight function in the procurement process, which includes monitoring the progress of field trial evaluations and performance assessments of the equipment being procured. This ensures that the assets acquired by the armed forces meet the specified operational requirements and quality standards.

Solution: C

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