UPSC Editorials Quiz : 17 December 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the application of Nuclear Power in Space: Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) systems primarily utilize reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines, ensuring long-duration thrust for cargo missions. Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP) systems heat a liquid propellant, such as hydrogen, to create thrust for rapid transit to Mars. In-Situ Resource Utilization (ISRU) leverages nuclear power to process extraterrestrial ice into essential supplies like water and oxygen. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP), not NTP. NEP uses reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines for long-duration thrust. Statement 2 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP). NTP involves a reactor heating a liquid propellant (like hydrogen) directly to expand it through a nozzle, providing high thrust for faster transit (e.g., to Mars), thereby reducing radiation exposure. Statement 3 is correct. ISRU (In-Situ Resource Utilization) relies on nuclear power for the energy-intensive process of continuously extracting and processing ice found on the Moon or Mars into water, oxygen, and propellants, which is critical for return missions and sustainability. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP), not NTP. NEP uses reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines for long-duration thrust. Statement 2 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP). NTP involves a reactor heating a liquid propellant (like hydrogen) directly to expand it through a nozzle, providing high thrust for faster transit (e.g., to Mars), thereby reducing radiation exposure. Statement 3 is correct. ISRU (In-Situ Resource Utilization) relies on nuclear power for the energy-intensive process of continuously extracting and processing ice found on the Moon or Mars into water, oxygen, and propellants, which is critical for return missions and sustainability.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the application of Nuclear Power in Space:

• Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) systems primarily utilize reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines, ensuring long-duration thrust for cargo missions.

• Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP) systems heat a liquid propellant, such as hydrogen, to create thrust for rapid transit to Mars.

• In-Situ Resource Utilization (ISRU) leverages nuclear power to process extraterrestrial ice into essential supplies like water and oxygen.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP), not NTP. NEP uses reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines for long-duration thrust.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP). NTP involves a reactor heating a liquid propellant (like hydrogen) directly to expand it through a nozzle, providing high thrust for faster transit (e.g., to Mars), thereby reducing radiation exposure.

Statement 3 is correct. ISRU (In-Situ Resource Utilization) relies on nuclear power for the energy-intensive process of continuously extracting and processing ice found on the Moon or Mars into water, oxygen, and propellants, which is critical for return missions and sustainability.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because it describes Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP), not NTP. NEP uses reactor-generated electricity to drive ion engines for long-duration thrust.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following pairs regarding Bioremediation techniques: Technique Description 1. Bioventing Injecting air and nutrients to stimulate microbes in unsaturated soil. 2. Air Sparging Extracting contaminated water, treating it in reactors, and reinjecting it. 3. Biobarriers Constructing permeable trenches where microbes degrade contaminants in flowing groundwater. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bioventing involves injecting air and nutrients specifically into unsaturated soil to stimulate indigenous microbes. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The description provided (“Extracting contaminated water…”) refers to Water Recirculation Systems. Air Sparging involves pumping air directly into the groundwater (saturated zone) to oxygenate microbes and strip volatile pollutants. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Biobarriers or Biowalls are permeable trenches installed in the path of groundwater flow; as the water passes through, the microbes within the trench degrade the contaminants. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bioventing involves injecting air and nutrients specifically into unsaturated soil to stimulate indigenous microbes. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The description provided (“Extracting contaminated water…”) refers to Water Recirculation Systems. Air Sparging involves pumping air directly into the groundwater (saturated zone) to oxygenate microbes and strip volatile pollutants. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Biobarriers or Biowalls are permeable trenches installed in the path of groundwater flow; as the water passes through, the microbes within the trench degrade the contaminants.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Bioremediation techniques:

| Technique | Description

1.| Bioventing | Injecting air and nutrients to stimulate microbes in unsaturated soil.
2.| Air Sparging | Extracting contaminated water, treating it in reactors, and reinjecting it.
3.| Biobarriers | Constructing permeable trenches where microbes degrade contaminants in flowing groundwater.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bioventing involves injecting air and nutrients specifically into unsaturated soil to stimulate indigenous microbes.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The description provided (“Extracting contaminated water…”) refers to Water Recirculation Systems. Air Sparging involves pumping air directly into the groundwater (saturated zone) to oxygenate microbes and strip volatile pollutants.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Biobarriers or Biowalls are permeable trenches installed in the path of groundwater flow; as the water passes through, the microbes within the trench degrade the contaminants.

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bioventing involves injecting air and nutrients specifically into unsaturated soil to stimulate indigenous microbes.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question “India is an indestructible Union of destructible States.” This principle is reflected in which of the following provisions? Article 3 allows the Parliament to alter the boundaries of a State without its consent. Article 1 declares India as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation’. The States have no right to secede from the Union. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1: The “destructible” nature of states is evident in Article 3. The existence of a state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Parliament can redraw the map, merge states, or tear them apart (e.g., J&K Reorganization 2019) with a simple majority, and the state legislature’s consent is not mandatory (only their views are sought). Statement 2: Ambedkar explained in the Constituent Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the units (like the USA), and thus it is “Indestructible” as a whole. Statement 3: The “Indestructible” nature of the Union means no state has the right to secede. This was further reinforced by the 16th Constitutional Amendment (1963), which made “sovereignty and integrity of India” a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1: The “destructible” nature of states is evident in Article 3. The existence of a state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Parliament can redraw the map, merge states, or tear them apart (e.g., J&K Reorganization 2019) with a simple majority, and the state legislature’s consent is not mandatory (only their views are sought). Statement 2: Ambedkar explained in the Constituent Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the units (like the USA), and thus it is “Indestructible” as a whole. Statement 3: The “Indestructible” nature of the Union means no state has the right to secede. This was further reinforced by the 16th Constitutional Amendment (1963), which made “sovereignty and integrity of India” a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech.

#### 3. Question

“India is an indestructible Union of destructible States.” This principle is reflected in which of the following provisions?

• Article 3 allows the Parliament to alter the boundaries of a State without its consent.

• Article 1 declares India as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation’.

• The States have no right to secede from the Union.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1: The “destructible” nature of states is evident in Article 3. The existence of a state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Parliament can redraw the map, merge states, or tear them apart (e.g., J&K Reorganization 2019) with a simple majority, and the state legislature’s consent is not mandatory (only their views are sought).

• Statement 2: Ambedkar explained in the Constituent Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the units (like the USA), and thus it is “Indestructible” as a whole.

• Statement 3: The “Indestructible” nature of the Union means no state has the right to secede. This was further reinforced by the 16th Constitutional Amendment (1963), which made “sovereignty and integrity of India” a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) updated under the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements: India has committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030, compared to the 2005 level. The target mandates that 50 percent of India’s total energy requirements must be met exclusively through renewable energy sources like solar and wind by 2030. The goals include creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: India’s updated NDC includes an enhanced target to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level. This signifies a decoupling of economic growth from greenhouse gas emissions. Statement 2 is incorrect: The official target is to achieve 50 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. “Non-fossil” is a broader category that includes nuclear power and large hydro, not just “renewable energy” sources like solar and wind. Furthermore, it refers to installed capacity, not the total energy requirement/generation. Statement 3 is correct: India has committed to creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent. This is to be achieved through massive afforestation and agroforestry initiatives to expand forest and tree cover by the year 2030, aiding in natural sequestration of emissions. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: India’s updated NDC includes an enhanced target to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level. This signifies a decoupling of economic growth from greenhouse gas emissions. Statement 2 is incorrect: The official target is to achieve 50 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. “Non-fossil” is a broader category that includes nuclear power and large hydro, not just “renewable energy” sources like solar and wind. Furthermore, it refers to installed capacity, not the total energy requirement/generation. Statement 3 is correct: India has committed to creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent. This is to be achieved through massive afforestation and agroforestry initiatives to expand forest and tree cover by the year 2030, aiding in natural sequestration of emissions.

#### 4. Question

• With reference to India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) updated under the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements:

• India has committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030, compared to the 2005 level.

• The target mandates that 50 percent of India’s total energy requirements must be met exclusively through renewable energy sources like solar and wind by 2030.

• The goals include creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: India’s updated NDC includes an enhanced target to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level. This signifies a decoupling of economic growth from greenhouse gas emissions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The official target is to achieve 50 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. “Non-fossil” is a broader category that includes nuclear power and large hydro, not just “renewable energy” sources like solar and wind. Furthermore, it refers to installed capacity, not the total energy requirement/generation.

• Statement 3 is correct: India has committed to creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent. This is to be achieved through massive afforestation and agroforestry initiatives to expand forest and tree cover by the year 2030, aiding in natural sequestration of emissions.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following pairs regarding the Constitution of India and Parliament: Pair Article Subject Matter 1. Article 107 Special procedure in respect of Money Bills 2. Article 118 Power of each House to make rules of procedure 3. Article 121 Restriction on discussion in Parliament regarding conduct of Judges How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Article 107 deals with the Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills generally. It establishes that a Bill may originate in either House and must be agreed to by both Houses. The special procedure in respect of Money Bills is dealt with under Article 109, and the definition is under Article 110. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Article 118 empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of the Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. This is the source of authority for the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Article 121 imposes a specific restriction. It states that no discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties, except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Article 107 deals with the Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills generally. It establishes that a Bill may originate in either House and must be agreed to by both Houses. The special procedure in respect of Money Bills is dealt with under Article 109, and the definition is under Article 110. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Article 118 empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of the Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. This is the source of authority for the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Article 121 imposes a specific restriction. It states that no discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties, except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding the Constitution of India and Parliament:

Pair | Article | Subject Matter

1.| Article 107 | Special procedure in respect of Money Bills
2.| Article 118 | Power of each House to make rules of procedure
3.| Article 121 | Restriction on discussion in Parliament regarding conduct of Judges

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Article 107 deals with the Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills generally. It establishes that a Bill may originate in either House and must be agreed to by both Houses. The special procedure in respect of Money Bills is dealt with under Article 109, and the definition is under Article 110.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Article 118 empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of the Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. This is the source of authority for the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Article 121 imposes a specific restriction. It states that no discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties, except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge.

Solution: B

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