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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 16 April 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the revoked trans-shipment facility between India and Bangladesh: It enabled Bangladeshi exports to access landlocked countries through Indian logistics corridors. The facility was offered under a trilateral agreement with Nepal and Bhutan. Its revocation could lead to longer shipment times and increased costs for Bangladeshi exporters. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) The transshipment facility between India and Bangladesh allowed Bangladeshi cargo to use Indian ports and road-rail networks to access third countries, notably landlocked nations like Nepal and Bhutan. Statement 1 is correct, as this arrangement provided Bangladesh critical access to inland corridors for trade beyond its borders. Statement 2 is incorrect—the facility was not governed by a trilateral agreement but was a bilateral logistical arrangement between India and Bangladesh, extended as a goodwill gesture under India’s Neighbourhood First policy. Statement 3 is correct because revoking the facility forces Bangladesh to rely on longer maritime routes or overland alternatives via China or Myanmar, increasing transportation time and costs, and potentially hurting its export competitiveness. Incorrect Solution: b) The transshipment facility between India and Bangladesh allowed Bangladeshi cargo to use Indian ports and road-rail networks to access third countries, notably landlocked nations like Nepal and Bhutan. Statement 1 is correct, as this arrangement provided Bangladesh critical access to inland corridors for trade beyond its borders. Statement 2 is incorrect—the facility was not governed by a trilateral agreement but was a bilateral logistical arrangement between India and Bangladesh, extended as a goodwill gesture under India’s Neighbourhood First policy. Statement 3 is correct because revoking the facility forces Bangladesh to rely on longer maritime routes or overland alternatives via China or Myanmar, increasing transportation time and costs, and potentially hurting its export competitiveness.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the revoked trans-shipment facility between India and Bangladesh:

• It enabled Bangladeshi exports to access landlocked countries through Indian logistics corridors.

• The facility was offered under a trilateral agreement with Nepal and Bhutan.

• Its revocation could lead to longer shipment times and increased costs for Bangladeshi exporters.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• The transshipment facility between India and Bangladesh allowed Bangladeshi cargo to use Indian ports and road-rail networks to access third countries, notably landlocked nations like Nepal and Bhutan.

Statement 1 is correct, as this arrangement provided Bangladesh critical access to inland corridors for trade beyond its borders.

Statement 2 is incorrect—the facility was not governed by a trilateral agreement but was a bilateral logistical arrangement between India and Bangladesh, extended as a goodwill gesture under India’s Neighbourhood First policy.

Statement 3 is correct because revoking the facility forces Bangladesh to rely on longer maritime routes or overland alternatives via China or Myanmar, increasing transportation time and costs, and potentially hurting its export competitiveness.

Solution: b)

• The transshipment facility between India and Bangladesh allowed Bangladeshi cargo to use Indian ports and road-rail networks to access third countries, notably landlocked nations like Nepal and Bhutan.

Statement 1 is correct, as this arrangement provided Bangladesh critical access to inland corridors for trade beyond its borders.

Statement 2 is incorrect—the facility was not governed by a trilateral agreement but was a bilateral logistical arrangement between India and Bangladesh, extended as a goodwill gesture under India’s Neighbourhood First policy.

Statement 3 is correct because revoking the facility forces Bangladesh to rely on longer maritime routes or overland alternatives via China or Myanmar, increasing transportation time and costs, and potentially hurting its export competitiveness.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following are recognized impacts of marine litter? Disruption of marine food chains through ingestion and bioaccumulation Interference with shipping lanes and navigation Increased greenhouse gas emissions from ocean surface plastics Strengthening coral reef resilience through surface shading Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health. Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines. Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions. Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.” Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health. Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines. Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions. Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.”

#### 2. Question

Which of the following are recognized impacts of marine litter?

• Disruption of marine food chains through ingestion and bioaccumulation

• Interference with shipping lanes and navigation

• Increased greenhouse gas emissions from ocean surface plastics

• Strengthening coral reef resilience through surface shading

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a)

Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health.

Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines.

Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.”

Solution: a)

Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health.

Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines.

Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.”

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following mechanisms determines NREGA wage rates after 2011? a) Linked to CPI-Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) b) Fixed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment annually c) Based on recommendations by State Wage Boards d) Indexed to CPI-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) Correct Solution: d) NREGA wage rates have been indexed to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) since 2011, with 2009 as the base year. The move aimed to ensure real wage parity across states amid inflation. This adjustment replaced the earlier mechanism where states’ minimum wages applied by default (Section 6(2)). The Central Government now notifies independent wage rates under Section 6(1), superseding state rates unless topped up voluntarily by states. CPI-AL reflects inflation trends among rural labourers, making it a more suitable indicator for agricultural and manual wage adjustments. Incorrect Solution: d) NREGA wage rates have been indexed to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) since 2011, with 2009 as the base year. The move aimed to ensure real wage parity across states amid inflation. This adjustment replaced the earlier mechanism where states’ minimum wages applied by default (Section 6(2)). The Central Government now notifies independent wage rates under Section 6(1), superseding state rates unless topped up voluntarily by states. CPI-AL reflects inflation trends among rural labourers, making it a more suitable indicator for agricultural and manual wage adjustments.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following mechanisms determines NREGA wage rates after 2011?

• a) Linked to CPI-Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)

• b) Fixed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment annually

• c) Based on recommendations by State Wage Boards

• d) Indexed to CPI-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL)

Solution: d)

• NREGA wage rates have been indexed to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) since 2011, with 2009 as the base year. The move aimed to ensure real wage parity across states amid inflation.

• This adjustment replaced the earlier mechanism where states’ minimum wages applied by default (Section 6(2)).

• The Central Government now notifies independent wage rates under Section 6(1), superseding state rates unless topped up voluntarily by states.

• CPI-AL reflects inflation trends among rural labourers, making it a more suitable indicator for agricultural and manual wage adjustments.

Solution: d)

• NREGA wage rates have been indexed to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) since 2011, with 2009 as the base year. The move aimed to ensure real wage parity across states amid inflation.

• This adjustment replaced the earlier mechanism where states’ minimum wages applied by default (Section 6(2)).

• The Central Government now notifies independent wage rates under Section 6(1), superseding state rates unless topped up voluntarily by states.

• CPI-AL reflects inflation trends among rural labourers, making it a more suitable indicator for agricultural and manual wage adjustments.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Simlipal and Sundarbans biosphere reserves are both part of the Ramsar Convention network. The Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve is part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) and is majorly marine in its landscape. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans across three Indian states and was India’s first to be included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network. Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine. Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network. Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine. Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Simlipal and Sundarbans biosphere reserves are both part of the Ramsar Convention network.

• The Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve is part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) and is majorly marine in its landscape.

• Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans across three Indian states and was India’s first to be included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network.

Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine.

Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network.

Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine.

Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: Tornadoes and tropical cyclones both originate primarily over warm oceans. Tornadoes typically last longer than tropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones can cause widespread flooding, while tornadoes result in highly localized damage. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While tropical cyclones originate over warm ocean waters, tornadoes typically form over land, particularly in regions where cold dry air meets warm moist air, such as the Great Plains of the USA. Tornadoes are a product of severe thunderstorms, not oceanic heat systems. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Tropical cyclones are massive systems that can last for several days to over a week, affecting large geographic areas. In contrast, tornadoes are short-lived phenomena, usually lasting a few minutes to an hour, although they can be extremely destructive during that time. Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones cause widespread devastation, including storm surges, coastal erosion, and inland flooding, while tornadoes create highly localized damage due to their narrow path and smaller scale, often confined to a few kilometers. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While tropical cyclones originate over warm ocean waters, tornadoes typically form over land, particularly in regions where cold dry air meets warm moist air, such as the Great Plains of the USA. Tornadoes are a product of severe thunderstorms, not oceanic heat systems. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Tropical cyclones are massive systems that can last for several days to over a week, affecting large geographic areas. In contrast, tornadoes are short-lived phenomena, usually lasting a few minutes to an hour, although they can be extremely destructive during that time. Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones cause widespread devastation, including storm surges, coastal erosion, and inland flooding, while tornadoes create highly localized damage due to their narrow path and smaller scale, often confined to a few kilometers.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Tornadoes and tropical cyclones both originate primarily over warm oceans.

• Tornadoes typically last longer than tropical cyclones.

• Tropical cyclones can cause widespread flooding, while tornadoes result in highly localized damage.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While tropical cyclones originate over warm ocean waters, tornadoes typically form over land, particularly in regions where cold dry air meets warm moist air, such as the Great Plains of the USA. Tornadoes are a product of severe thunderstorms, not oceanic heat systems.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. Tropical cyclones are massive systems that can last for several days to over a week, affecting large geographic areas. In contrast, tornadoes are short-lived phenomena, usually lasting a few minutes to an hour, although they can be extremely destructive during that time.

Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones cause widespread devastation, including storm surges, coastal erosion, and inland flooding, while tornadoes create highly localized damage due to their narrow path and smaller scale, often confined to a few kilometers.

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While tropical cyclones originate over warm ocean waters, tornadoes typically form over land, particularly in regions where cold dry air meets warm moist air, such as the Great Plains of the USA. Tornadoes are a product of severe thunderstorms, not oceanic heat systems.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. Tropical cyclones are massive systems that can last for several days to over a week, affecting large geographic areas. In contrast, tornadoes are short-lived phenomena, usually lasting a few minutes to an hour, although they can be extremely destructive during that time.

Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones cause widespread devastation, including storm surges, coastal erosion, and inland flooding, while tornadoes create highly localized damage due to their narrow path and smaller scale, often confined to a few kilometers.

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