UPSC Editorials Quiz : 14 October 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Great Nicobar Island: The island is part of the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot. It hosts one of the world’s largest nesting grounds for the Leatherback Turtle. It lies within the high seismic zone due to proximity to the Andaman Trench. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Great Nicobar lies within the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot, hosting unique flora and fauna, including the endangered Leatherback Turtle, which nests at Galathea Bay. It also lies in a high seismic zone, affected severely during the 2004 tsunami. Incorrect Solution: C Great Nicobar lies within the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot, hosting unique flora and fauna, including the endangered Leatherback Turtle, which nests at Galathea Bay. It also lies in a high seismic zone, affected severely during the 2004 tsunami.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Nicobar Island:

• The island is part of the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot.

• It hosts one of the world’s largest nesting grounds for the Leatherback Turtle.

• It lies within the high seismic zone due to proximity to the Andaman Trench.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Great Nicobar lies within the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot, hosting unique flora and fauna, including the endangered Leatherback Turtle, which nests at Galathea Bay. It also lies in a high seismic zone, affected severely during the 2004 tsunami.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The doctrine of Public Trust, often invoked in Indian environmental law, implies that: a) The State owns natural resources absolutely and can use them for profit. b) The State holds natural resources in trust for public use and cannot alienate them arbitrarily c) Private individuals can claim ownership of common property resources. d) Forests and rivers can be leased permanently to private entities. Correct Solution: B The Public Trust Doctrine, adopted by the Indian judiciary, holds that the State is a trustee of natural resources — such as air, water, and forests — for the benefit of present and future generations. The doctrine originated from the Illinois Central Railroad case (1892) in the U.S. and was first applied in India in the M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997) case. It limits the State’s power to transfer or privatize common natural resources. In the Great Nicobar context, it implies that the government cannot alienate forests or coastal areas purely for commercial projects without safeguarding public ecological interests. Incorrect Solution: B The Public Trust Doctrine, adopted by the Indian judiciary, holds that the State is a trustee of natural resources — such as air, water, and forests — for the benefit of present and future generations. The doctrine originated from the Illinois Central Railroad case (1892) in the U.S. and was first applied in India in the M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997) case. It limits the State’s power to transfer or privatize common natural resources. In the Great Nicobar context, it implies that the government cannot alienate forests or coastal areas purely for commercial projects without safeguarding public ecological interests.

#### 2. Question

The doctrine of Public Trust, often invoked in Indian environmental law, implies that:

• a) The State owns natural resources absolutely and can use them for profit.

• b) The State holds natural resources in trust for public use and cannot alienate them arbitrarily

• c) Private individuals can claim ownership of common property resources.

• d) Forests and rivers can be leased permanently to private entities.

Solution: B

The Public Trust Doctrine, adopted by the Indian judiciary, holds that the State is a trustee of natural resources — such as air, water, and forests — for the benefit of present and future generations. The doctrine originated from the Illinois Central Railroad case (1892) in the U.S. and was first applied in India in the M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997) case. It limits the State’s power to transfer or privatize common natural resources. In the Great Nicobar context, it implies that the government cannot alienate forests or coastal areas purely for commercial projects without safeguarding public ecological interests.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, mandates the central government to eliminate its revenue deficit. The Act provides for an ‘escape clause’ that allows for deviation from the fiscal targets under specific circumstances, such as a national calamity or a sharp decline in real output growth. The recommendations of the N.K. Singh Committee on FRBM review suggested using the debt-to-GDP ratio as the primary anchor for fiscal policy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A key objective of the FRBM Act, 2003, was to instill fiscal discipline. It set targets for the reduction of both the fiscal deficit and the revenue deficit. The original Act, and its subsequent amendments, have consistently maintained the long-term goal of eliminating the revenue deficit. A revenue deficit occurs when revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts, implying the government is borrowing to finance its day-to-day consumption expenditure, which is considered fiscally imprudent. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that rigid fiscal targets might be counterproductive during severe economic shocks, the FRBM Act was amended to include an ‘escape clause’. This provision allows the government to deviate from its fiscal consolidation roadmap on grounds of national security, war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture, or a sharp decline in real output growth of at least three percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters. This provides necessary flexibility in fiscal policy. Statement 3 is correct. The FRBM Review Committee, chaired by N.K. Singh, submitted its report in 2017 and recommended a major shift in the fiscal policy framework. It suggested that the debt-to-GDP ratio should be considered the primary anchor for fiscal policy, as debt sustainability is the ultimate objective. It recommended a target of a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for the States) to be achieved by 2023, while continuing with fiscal deficit as the operational target. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A key objective of the FRBM Act, 2003, was to instill fiscal discipline. It set targets for the reduction of both the fiscal deficit and the revenue deficit. The original Act, and its subsequent amendments, have consistently maintained the long-term goal of eliminating the revenue deficit. A revenue deficit occurs when revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts, implying the government is borrowing to finance its day-to-day consumption expenditure, which is considered fiscally imprudent. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that rigid fiscal targets might be counterproductive during severe economic shocks, the FRBM Act was amended to include an ‘escape clause’. This provision allows the government to deviate from its fiscal consolidation roadmap on grounds of national security, war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture, or a sharp decline in real output growth of at least three percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters. This provides necessary flexibility in fiscal policy. Statement 3 is correct. The FRBM Review Committee, chaired by N.K. Singh, submitted its report in 2017 and recommended a major shift in the fiscal policy framework. It suggested that the debt-to-GDP ratio should be considered the primary anchor for fiscal policy, as debt sustainability is the ultimate objective. It recommended a target of a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for the States) to be achieved by 2023, while continuing with fiscal deficit as the operational target.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, mandates the central government to eliminate its revenue deficit.

• The Act provides for an ‘escape clause’ that allows for deviation from the fiscal targets under specific circumstances, such as a national calamity or a sharp decline in real output growth.

• The recommendations of the N.K. Singh Committee on FRBM review suggested using the debt-to-GDP ratio as the primary anchor for fiscal policy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. A key objective of the FRBM Act, 2003, was to instill fiscal discipline. It set targets for the reduction of both the fiscal deficit and the revenue deficit. The original Act, and its subsequent amendments, have consistently maintained the long-term goal of eliminating the revenue deficit. A revenue deficit occurs when revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts, implying the government is borrowing to finance its day-to-day consumption expenditure, which is considered fiscally imprudent.

• Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that rigid fiscal targets might be counterproductive during severe economic shocks, the FRBM Act was amended to include an ‘escape clause’. This provision allows the government to deviate from its fiscal consolidation roadmap on grounds of national security, war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture, or a sharp decline in real output growth of at least three percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters. This provides necessary flexibility in fiscal policy.

• Statement 3 is correct. The FRBM Review Committee, chaired by N.K. Singh, submitted its report in 2017 and recommended a major shift in the fiscal policy framework. It suggested that the debt-to-GDP ratio should be considered the primary anchor for fiscal policy, as debt sustainability is the ultimate objective. It recommended a target of a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for the States) to be achieved by 2023, while continuing with fiscal deficit as the operational target.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) constituted by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements: The PRB is a statutory body established under the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934. The composition of the PRB includes nominees from the Central Government, a feature absent in its predecessor, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS). Decisions within the PRB are taken by consensus, and the Governor of the RBI does not hold a casting vote. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) derives its authority from the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, not the RBI Act, 1934. The PSS Act is the primary legislation governing all payment systems in India. Statement 2 is correct. A significant structural change introduced with the PRB is the inclusion of three nominees from the Central Government. Its predecessor, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), was a committee of the RBI’s Central Board and did not have government nominees. This change is intended to foster better coordination between the central bank and the government on digital payment policies. Statement 3 is incorrect. Decisions in the PRB are made by a majority of votes of the members present and voting. In the event of a tie, the Chairperson (the RBI Governor) or, in their absence, the Deputy Governor presiding over the meeting, has a second or casting vote to break the deadlock. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) derives its authority from the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, not the RBI Act, 1934. The PSS Act is the primary legislation governing all payment systems in India. Statement 2 is correct. A significant structural change introduced with the PRB is the inclusion of three nominees from the Central Government. Its predecessor, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), was a committee of the RBI’s Central Board and did not have government nominees. This change is intended to foster better coordination between the central bank and the government on digital payment policies. Statement 3 is incorrect. Decisions in the PRB are made by a majority of votes of the members present and voting. In the event of a tie, the Chairperson (the RBI Governor) or, in their absence, the Deputy Governor presiding over the meeting, has a second or casting vote to break the deadlock.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) constituted by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

• The PRB is a statutory body established under the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934.

• The composition of the PRB includes nominees from the Central Government, a feature absent in its predecessor, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS).

• Decisions within the PRB are taken by consensus, and the Governor of the RBI does not hold a casting vote.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) derives its authority from the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, not the RBI Act, 1934. The PSS Act is the primary legislation governing all payment systems in India.

• Statement 2 is correct. A significant structural change introduced with the PRB is the inclusion of three nominees from the Central Government. Its predecessor, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), was a committee of the RBI’s Central Board and did not have government nominees. This change is intended to foster better coordination between the central bank and the government on digital payment policies.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Decisions in the PRB are made by a majority of votes of the members present and voting. In the event of a tie, the Chairperson (the RBI Governor) or, in their absence, the Deputy Governor presiding over the meeting, has a second or casting vote to break the deadlock.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme that provides cash assistance to pregnant women for delivery in government health facilities. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) makes it mandatory for all private and public hospitals to be part of its digital health ecosystem. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a compulsory crop insurance scheme for all farmers who avail institutional credit. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission. Its objective is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery. It provides a cash incentive to eligible pregnant women for delivering their babies in a government or accredited private health facility. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a seamless online platform for the health ecosystem. However, participation in this digital ecosystem is voluntary for both citizens and health facilities. While it encourages adoption to achieve universal health coverage, it does not make it mandatory for hospitals to join. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was initially launched with a provision that made it compulsory for loanee farmers (those who take institutional credit). However, in 2020, the scheme was revamped, and participation was made voluntary for all farmers, including those who have taken loans. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission. Its objective is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery. It provides a cash incentive to eligible pregnant women for delivering their babies in a government or accredited private health facility. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a seamless online platform for the health ecosystem. However, participation in this digital ecosystem is voluntary for both citizens and health facilities. While it encourages adoption to achieve universal health coverage, it does not make it mandatory for hospitals to join. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was initially launched with a provision that made it compulsory for loanee farmers (those who take institutional credit). However, in 2020, the scheme was revamped, and participation was made voluntary for all farmers, including those who have taken loans.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme that provides cash assistance to pregnant women for delivery in government health facilities.

• The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) makes it mandatory for all private and public hospitals to be part of its digital health ecosystem.

• The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a compulsory crop insurance scheme for all farmers who avail institutional credit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission. Its objective is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery. It provides a cash incentive to eligible pregnant women for delivering their babies in a government or accredited private health facility.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a seamless online platform for the health ecosystem. However, participation in this digital ecosystem is voluntary for both citizens and health facilities. While it encourages adoption to achieve universal health coverage, it does not make it mandatory for hospitals to join.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was initially launched with a provision that made it compulsory for loanee farmers (those who take institutional credit). However, in 2020, the scheme was revamped, and participation was made voluntary for all farmers, including those who have taken loans.

Solution: A

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE