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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 14 February 2026

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match the following public health concepts with their correct descriptions: Column I Column II A. Herd Immunity 1. Immunological memory generated after exposure B. Active Immunity 2. Indirect protection of non-immune individuals C. Passive Immunity 3. Transfer of ready-made antibodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3 (c) A-2, B-3, C-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-2 Correct Solution: A Herd Immunity (A–2): Herd immunity refers to the indirect protection provided to susceptible or non-immune individuals when a sufficiently large proportion of the population becomes immune (through vaccination or prior infection). This reduces the overall transmission of the infectious agent in the community. Active Immunity (B–1): Active immunity develops when a person’s own immune system produces antibodies and memory cells after exposure to an antigen, either through natural infection or vaccination. It involves immunological memory and is usually long-lasting. Passive Immunity (C–3): Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are transferred from one individual to another. Examples include maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus or administration of immunoglobulin injections. It provides immediate but short-term protection since no immunological memory is formed. Incorrect Solution: A Herd Immunity (A–2): Herd immunity refers to the indirect protection provided to susceptible or non-immune individuals when a sufficiently large proportion of the population becomes immune (through vaccination or prior infection). This reduces the overall transmission of the infectious agent in the community. Active Immunity (B–1): Active immunity develops when a person’s own immune system produces antibodies and memory cells after exposure to an antigen, either through natural infection or vaccination. It involves immunological memory and is usually long-lasting. Passive Immunity (C–3): Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are transferred from one individual to another. Examples include maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus or administration of immunoglobulin injections. It provides immediate but short-term protection since no immunological memory is formed.

#### 1. Question

Match the following public health concepts with their correct descriptions:

Column I | Column II

A. Herd Immunity | 1. Immunological memory generated after exposure

B. Active Immunity | 2. Indirect protection of non-immune individuals

C. Passive Immunity | 3. Transfer of ready-made antibodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-1, C-3

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (c) A-2, B-3, C-1

• (d) A-3, B-1, C-2

Solution: A

Herd Immunity (A–2): Herd immunity refers to the indirect protection provided to susceptible or non-immune individuals when a sufficiently large proportion of the population becomes immune (through vaccination or prior infection). This reduces the overall transmission of the infectious agent in the community.

Active Immunity (B–1): Active immunity develops when a person’s own immune system produces antibodies and memory cells after exposure to an antigen, either through natural infection or vaccination. It involves immunological memory and is usually long-lasting.

Passive Immunity (C–3): Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are transferred from one individual to another. Examples include maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus or administration of immunoglobulin injections. It provides immediate but short-term protection since no immunological memory is formed.

Solution: A

Herd Immunity (A–2): Herd immunity refers to the indirect protection provided to susceptible or non-immune individuals when a sufficiently large proportion of the population becomes immune (through vaccination or prior infection). This reduces the overall transmission of the infectious agent in the community.

Active Immunity (B–1): Active immunity develops when a person’s own immune system produces antibodies and memory cells after exposure to an antigen, either through natural infection or vaccination. It involves immunological memory and is usually long-lasting.

Passive Immunity (C–3): Passive immunity occurs when ready-made antibodies are transferred from one individual to another. Examples include maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus or administration of immunoglobulin injections. It provides immediate but short-term protection since no immunological memory is formed.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to extremophiles, consider the following statements: Hyperthermophiles are found in hydrothermal vents and can grow above 100°C under high pressure. Acidophiles can survive in environments with pH values below 3. Psychrophiles can remain metabolically active in sub-zero temperatures. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and III (d) I and III only Correct Solution: C Statement I: Hyperthermophiles are organisms that thrive at extremely high temperatures, typically above 80°C. Many are found in deep-sea hydrothermal vents where temperatures can exceed 100°C. Under high-pressure conditions found in the deep ocean, water does not boil at 100°C, allowing these organisms to survive and grow even above this temperature. Their proteins and enzymes are specially adapted to remain stable and functional in such extreme heat. Statement II: Acidophiles are organisms that thrive in highly acidic environments, often with pH levels below 3. Such conditions are found in acid mine drainage sites, volcanic regions, and sulfuric hot springs. These organisms maintain internal pH homeostasis despite highly acidic external surroundings. Statement III: Psychrophiles are cold-loving organisms that can remain metabolically active at very low temperatures, including sub-zero conditions. They are found in polar regions, glaciers, deep oceans, and permafrost. Their cellular membranes and enzymes are adapted to function efficiently in cold environments. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I: Hyperthermophiles are organisms that thrive at extremely high temperatures, typically above 80°C. Many are found in deep-sea hydrothermal vents where temperatures can exceed 100°C. Under high-pressure conditions found in the deep ocean, water does not boil at 100°C, allowing these organisms to survive and grow even above this temperature. Their proteins and enzymes are specially adapted to remain stable and functional in such extreme heat. Statement II: Acidophiles are organisms that thrive in highly acidic environments, often with pH levels below 3. Such conditions are found in acid mine drainage sites, volcanic regions, and sulfuric hot springs. These organisms maintain internal pH homeostasis despite highly acidic external surroundings. Statement III: Psychrophiles are cold-loving organisms that can remain metabolically active at very low temperatures, including sub-zero conditions. They are found in polar regions, glaciers, deep oceans, and permafrost. Their cellular membranes and enzymes are adapted to function efficiently in cold environments.

#### 2. Question

With reference to extremophiles, consider the following statements:

• Hyperthermophiles are found in hydrothermal vents and can grow above 100°C under high pressure.

• Acidophiles can survive in environments with pH values below 3.

• Psychrophiles can remain metabolically active in sub-zero temperatures.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I, II and III

• (d) I and III only

Solution: C

Statement I: Hyperthermophiles are organisms that thrive at extremely high temperatures, typically above 80°C. Many are found in deep-sea hydrothermal vents where temperatures can exceed 100°C. Under high-pressure conditions found in the deep ocean, water does not boil at 100°C, allowing these organisms to survive and grow even above this temperature. Their proteins and enzymes are specially adapted to remain stable and functional in such extreme heat.

Statement II: Acidophiles are organisms that thrive in highly acidic environments, often with pH levels below 3. Such conditions are found in acid mine drainage sites, volcanic regions, and sulfuric hot springs. These organisms maintain internal pH homeostasis despite highly acidic external surroundings.

Statement III: Psychrophiles are cold-loving organisms that can remain metabolically active at very low temperatures, including sub-zero conditions. They are found in polar regions, glaciers, deep oceans, and permafrost. Their cellular membranes and enzymes are adapted to function efficiently in cold environments.

Solution: C

Statement I: Hyperthermophiles are organisms that thrive at extremely high temperatures, typically above 80°C. Many are found in deep-sea hydrothermal vents where temperatures can exceed 100°C. Under high-pressure conditions found in the deep ocean, water does not boil at 100°C, allowing these organisms to survive and grow even above this temperature. Their proteins and enzymes are specially adapted to remain stable and functional in such extreme heat.

Statement II: Acidophiles are organisms that thrive in highly acidic environments, often with pH levels below 3. Such conditions are found in acid mine drainage sites, volcanic regions, and sulfuric hot springs. These organisms maintain internal pH homeostasis despite highly acidic external surroundings.

Statement III: Psychrophiles are cold-loving organisms that can remain metabolically active at very low temperatures, including sub-zero conditions. They are found in polar regions, glaciers, deep oceans, and permafrost. Their cellular membranes and enzymes are adapted to function efficiently in cold environments.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: Participation in the mission is voluntary for individuals and healthcare providers. Health data sharing under the system is consent-based and purpose-specific. Creation of a digital health ID automatically grants unrestricted government access to medical records. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has been designed as a voluntary initiative. Individuals may choose whether to create a digital health ID (now referred to as ABHA – Ayushman Bharat Health Account), and healthcare providers or facilities also participate by registering voluntarily. There is no mandatory compulsion for citizens to enroll. Statement II is correct. The mission is built on a consent-based data sharing framework. Health information is shared only after explicit consent from the individual, and such consent is purpose-specific and time-bound. This ensures that data is accessed only for a clearly defined objective, such as consultation or treatment, and cannot be reused arbitrarily. Statement III is incorrect. Creating a digital health ID does not grant unrestricted government access to medical records. Data remains under the control of the individual and can only be accessed with informed consent through the system’s privacy safeguards. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has been designed as a voluntary initiative. Individuals may choose whether to create a digital health ID (now referred to as ABHA – Ayushman Bharat Health Account), and healthcare providers or facilities also participate by registering voluntarily. There is no mandatory compulsion for citizens to enroll. Statement II is correct. The mission is built on a consent-based data sharing framework. Health information is shared only after explicit consent from the individual, and such consent is purpose-specific and time-bound. This ensures that data is accessed only for a clearly defined objective, such as consultation or treatment, and cannot be reused arbitrarily. Statement III is incorrect. Creating a digital health ID does not grant unrestricted government access to medical records. Data remains under the control of the individual and can only be accessed with informed consent through the system’s privacy safeguards.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

• Participation in the mission is voluntary for individuals and healthcare providers.

• Health data sharing under the system is consent-based and purpose-specific.

• Creation of a digital health ID automatically grants unrestricted government access to medical records.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement I is correct. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has been designed as a voluntary initiative. Individuals may choose whether to create a digital health ID (now referred to as ABHA – Ayushman Bharat Health Account), and healthcare providers or facilities also participate by registering voluntarily. There is no mandatory compulsion for citizens to enroll.

Statement II is correct. The mission is built on a consent-based data sharing framework. Health information is shared only after explicit consent from the individual, and such consent is purpose-specific and time-bound. This ensures that data is accessed only for a clearly defined objective, such as consultation or treatment, and cannot be reused arbitrarily.

Statement III is incorrect. Creating a digital health ID does not grant unrestricted government access to medical records. Data remains under the control of the individual and can only be accessed with informed consent through the system’s privacy safeguards.

Solution: B

Statement I is correct. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has been designed as a voluntary initiative. Individuals may choose whether to create a digital health ID (now referred to as ABHA – Ayushman Bharat Health Account), and healthcare providers or facilities also participate by registering voluntarily. There is no mandatory compulsion for citizens to enroll.

Statement II is correct. The mission is built on a consent-based data sharing framework. Health information is shared only after explicit consent from the individual, and such consent is purpose-specific and time-bound. This ensures that data is accessed only for a clearly defined objective, such as consultation or treatment, and cannot be reused arbitrarily.

Statement III is incorrect. Creating a digital health ID does not grant unrestricted government access to medical records. Data remains under the control of the individual and can only be accessed with informed consent through the system’s privacy safeguards.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question In the context of cancer immunotherapy, the PD-1/PD-L1 pathway primarily functions to: (a) Enhance antibody production by B-cells (b) Inhibit T-cell activation to maintain immune tolerance (c) Destroy tumor cells via direct cytotoxic radiation (d) Stimulate macrophage-mediated phagocytosis Correct Solution: B The PD-1/PD-L1 pathway is an immune checkpoint mechanism that regulates the body’s immune responses. PD-1 (Programmed Death-1) is a receptor expressed on activated T-cells, while PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1) is expressed on various cells, including tumor cells and antigen-presenting cells. When PD-1 binds to PD-L1, it sends an inhibitory signal to the T-cell. This reduces T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and cytotoxic activity. Physiologically, this pathway helps prevent excessive immune activation and autoimmunity by maintaining immune tolerance. However, many tumor cells exploit this mechanism by overexpressing PD-L1, effectively “switching off” T-cells that would otherwise attack them. Cancer immunotherapy drugs known as immune checkpoint inhibitors (such as anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 antibodies) block this interaction, thereby restoring T-cell activity against tumor cells. Incorrect Solution: B The PD-1/PD-L1 pathway is an immune checkpoint mechanism that regulates the body’s immune responses. PD-1 (Programmed Death-1) is a receptor expressed on activated T-cells, while PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1) is expressed on various cells, including tumor cells and antigen-presenting cells. When PD-1 binds to PD-L1, it sends an inhibitory signal to the T-cell. This reduces T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and cytotoxic activity. Physiologically, this pathway helps prevent excessive immune activation and autoimmunity by maintaining immune tolerance. However, many tumor cells exploit this mechanism by overexpressing PD-L1, effectively “switching off” T-cells that would otherwise attack them. Cancer immunotherapy drugs known as immune checkpoint inhibitors (such as anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 antibodies) block this interaction, thereby restoring T-cell activity against tumor cells.

#### 4. Question

In the context of cancer immunotherapy, the PD-1/PD-L1 pathway primarily functions to:

• (a) Enhance antibody production by B-cells

• (b) Inhibit T-cell activation to maintain immune tolerance

• (c) Destroy tumor cells via direct cytotoxic radiation

• (d) Stimulate macrophage-mediated phagocytosis

Solution: B

• The PD-1/PD-L1 pathway is an immune checkpoint mechanism that regulates the body’s immune responses. PD-1 (Programmed Death-1) is a receptor expressed on activated T-cells, while PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1) is expressed on various cells, including tumor cells and antigen-presenting cells.

• When PD-1 binds to PD-L1, it sends an inhibitory signal to the T-cell. This reduces T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and cytotoxic activity. Physiologically, this pathway helps prevent excessive immune activation and autoimmunity by maintaining immune tolerance.

• However, many tumor cells exploit this mechanism by overexpressing PD-L1, effectively “switching off” T-cells that would otherwise attack them. Cancer immunotherapy drugs known as immune checkpoint inhibitors (such as anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 antibodies) block this interaction, thereby restoring T-cell activity against tumor cells.

Solution: B

• The PD-1/PD-L1 pathway is an immune checkpoint mechanism that regulates the body’s immune responses. PD-1 (Programmed Death-1) is a receptor expressed on activated T-cells, while PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1) is expressed on various cells, including tumor cells and antigen-presenting cells.

• When PD-1 binds to PD-L1, it sends an inhibitory signal to the T-cell. This reduces T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and cytotoxic activity. Physiologically, this pathway helps prevent excessive immune activation and autoimmunity by maintaining immune tolerance.

• However, many tumor cells exploit this mechanism by overexpressing PD-L1, effectively “switching off” T-cells that would otherwise attack them. Cancer immunotherapy drugs known as immune checkpoint inhibitors (such as anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 antibodies) block this interaction, thereby restoring T-cell activity against tumor cells.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding malnutrition: Primary malnutrition arises from inadequate dietary intake. Secondary malnutrition results from impaired absorption or metabolism due to disease. Type I nutrient deficiencies generally show characteristic clinical signs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and III (d) I and III only Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Primary malnutrition occurs when there is inadequate intake of calories, proteins, or micronutrients due to insufficient food availability, poor dietary choices, poverty, or food insecurity. It is directly linked to dietary deficiency rather than underlying disease. Statement II is correct. Secondary malnutrition occurs when nutrient intake may be adequate, but the body cannot properly digest, absorb, metabolize, or utilize nutrients due to underlying illnesses. Conditions such as chronic infections, gastrointestinal disorders, liver disease, or metabolic abnormalities can impair nutrient utilization, leading to malnutrition despite sufficient food intake. Statement III is correct. Type I nutrient deficiencies (specific nutrient deficiencies) typically present with characteristic clinical signs and symptoms. For example, vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets or osteomalacia, and iron deficiency leads to anemia. These conditions show distinct clinical manifestations. In contrast, Type II deficiencies (such as protein-energy malnutrition) may not show such specific signs but instead affect growth and weight gain. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Primary malnutrition occurs when there is inadequate intake of calories, proteins, or micronutrients due to insufficient food availability, poor dietary choices, poverty, or food insecurity. It is directly linked to dietary deficiency rather than underlying disease. Statement II is correct. Secondary malnutrition occurs when nutrient intake may be adequate, but the body cannot properly digest, absorb, metabolize, or utilize nutrients due to underlying illnesses. Conditions such as chronic infections, gastrointestinal disorders, liver disease, or metabolic abnormalities can impair nutrient utilization, leading to malnutrition despite sufficient food intake. Statement III is correct. Type I nutrient deficiencies (specific nutrient deficiencies) typically present with characteristic clinical signs and symptoms. For example, vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets or osteomalacia, and iron deficiency leads to anemia. These conditions show distinct clinical manifestations. In contrast, Type II deficiencies (such as protein-energy malnutrition) may not show such specific signs but instead affect growth and weight gain.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding malnutrition:

• Primary malnutrition arises from inadequate dietary intake.

• Secondary malnutrition results from impaired absorption or metabolism due to disease.

• Type I nutrient deficiencies generally show characteristic clinical signs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I, II and III

• (d) I and III only

Solution: C

Statement I is correct. Primary malnutrition occurs when there is inadequate intake of calories, proteins, or micronutrients due to insufficient food availability, poor dietary choices, poverty, or food insecurity. It is directly linked to dietary deficiency rather than underlying disease.

Statement II is correct. Secondary malnutrition occurs when nutrient intake may be adequate, but the body cannot properly digest, absorb, metabolize, or utilize nutrients due to underlying illnesses. Conditions such as chronic infections, gastrointestinal disorders, liver disease, or metabolic abnormalities can impair nutrient utilization, leading to malnutrition despite sufficient food intake.

Statement III is correct. Type I nutrient deficiencies (specific nutrient deficiencies) typically present with characteristic clinical signs and symptoms. For example, vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets or osteomalacia, and iron deficiency leads to anemia. These conditions show distinct clinical manifestations. In contrast, Type II deficiencies (such as protein-energy malnutrition) may not show such specific signs but instead affect growth and weight gain.

Solution: C

Statement I is correct. Primary malnutrition occurs when there is inadequate intake of calories, proteins, or micronutrients due to insufficient food availability, poor dietary choices, poverty, or food insecurity. It is directly linked to dietary deficiency rather than underlying disease.

Statement II is correct. Secondary malnutrition occurs when nutrient intake may be adequate, but the body cannot properly digest, absorb, metabolize, or utilize nutrients due to underlying illnesses. Conditions such as chronic infections, gastrointestinal disorders, liver disease, or metabolic abnormalities can impair nutrient utilization, leading to malnutrition despite sufficient food intake.

Statement III is correct. Type I nutrient deficiencies (specific nutrient deficiencies) typically present with characteristic clinical signs and symptoms. For example, vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets or osteomalacia, and iron deficiency leads to anemia. These conditions show distinct clinical manifestations. In contrast, Type II deficiencies (such as protein-energy malnutrition) may not show such specific signs but instead affect growth and weight gain.

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