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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 13 November 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Functional Foods’: Statement I: Functional foods are primarily designed to improve specific health outcomes and prevent diseases beyond the provision of basic energy. Statement II: The concept of Functional Foods is distinct from fortification, as the former involves added bioactive compounds while the latter is limited to adding only vitamins and minerals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. The definition of functional foods is that they are nutrient-enriched or fortified foods designed to improve health and prevent diseases (e.g., supporting immunity, digestion, or heart health), which goes beyond providing just basic energy. Statement II is incorrect. The functional foods are “nutrient-enriched or fortified foods”. Fortification (adding vitamins and minerals) is a key mechanism and often an integral part of making a food functional (e.g., Vitamin-enriched rice). Functional foods simply represent a broader category that includes both fortification and the addition of bioactive compounds (like antioxidants or omega-3s). Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. The definition of functional foods is that they are nutrient-enriched or fortified foods designed to improve health and prevent diseases (e.g., supporting immunity, digestion, or heart health), which goes beyond providing just basic energy. Statement II is incorrect. The functional foods are “nutrient-enriched or fortified foods”. Fortification (adding vitamins and minerals) is a key mechanism and often an integral part of making a food functional (e.g., Vitamin-enriched rice). Functional foods simply represent a broader category that includes both fortification and the addition of bioactive compounds (like antioxidants or omega-3s).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Functional Foods’:

Statement I: Functional foods are primarily designed to improve specific health outcomes and prevent diseases beyond the provision of basic energy.

Statement II: The concept of Functional Foods is distinct from fortification, as the former involves added bioactive compounds while the latter is limited to adding only vitamins and minerals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. The definition of functional foods is that they are nutrient-enriched or fortified foods designed to improve health and prevent diseases (e.g., supporting immunity, digestion, or heart health), which goes beyond providing just basic energy.

• Statement II is incorrect. The functional foods are “nutrient-enriched or fortified foods”. Fortification (adding vitamins and minerals) is a key mechanism and often an integral part of making a food functional (e.g., Vitamin-enriched rice). Functional foods simply represent a broader category that includes both fortification and the addition of bioactive compounds (like antioxidants or omega-3s).

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. The definition of functional foods is that they are nutrient-enriched or fortified foods designed to improve health and prevent diseases (e.g., supporting immunity, digestion, or heart health), which goes beyond providing just basic energy.

• Statement II is incorrect. The functional foods are “nutrient-enriched or fortified foods”. Fortification (adding vitamins and minerals) is a key mechanism and often an integral part of making a food functional (e.g., Vitamin-enriched rice). Functional foods simply represent a broader category that includes both fortification and the addition of bioactive compounds (like antioxidants or omega-3s).

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: India is actively promoting the establishment of a Green Hydrogen ecosystem under the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The cost of producing green hydrogen is critically dependent on the availability of low-cost renewable electricity. Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity generated exclusively from natural gas. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission with the aim of making India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of green hydrogen and its derivatives. This is a key part of India’s strategy to achieve its climate targets and reduce dependence on fossil fuels in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, cement, and heavy transport. Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis, a process that uses electricity to split water (H2​O) into hydrogen (H2​) and oxygen (O2​). This process is highly energy-intensive. The major component of the production cost (often 60-70%) is the cost of the electricity used. Therefore, for the hydrogen to be economically viable and “green,” the electricity must come from cheap and renewable sources like solar or wind. The economic feasibility of the entire mission hinges on India’s ability to produce renewable electricity at very low tariffs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The term “green” hydrogen specifically refers to hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources. Hydrogen produced using electricity from natural gas would be termed “grey hydrogen” (if the resulting CO2​ is released) or “blue hydrogen” (if the CO2​ is captured and stored). The defining characteristic of green hydrogen is its zero-carbon production pathway. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission with the aim of making India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of green hydrogen and its derivatives. This is a key part of India’s strategy to achieve its climate targets and reduce dependence on fossil fuels in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, cement, and heavy transport. Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis, a process that uses electricity to split water (H2​O) into hydrogen (H2​) and oxygen (O2​). This process is highly energy-intensive. The major component of the production cost (often 60-70%) is the cost of the electricity used. Therefore, for the hydrogen to be economically viable and “green,” the electricity must come from cheap and renewable sources like solar or wind. The economic feasibility of the entire mission hinges on India’s ability to produce renewable electricity at very low tariffs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The term “green” hydrogen specifically refers to hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources. Hydrogen produced using electricity from natural gas would be termed “grey hydrogen” (if the resulting CO2​ is released) or “blue hydrogen” (if the CO2​ is captured and stored). The defining characteristic of green hydrogen is its zero-carbon production pathway.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India is actively promoting the establishment of a Green Hydrogen ecosystem under the National Green Hydrogen Mission.

• The cost of producing green hydrogen is critically dependent on the availability of low-cost renewable electricity.

• Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity generated exclusively from natural gas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission with the aim of making India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of green hydrogen and its derivatives. This is a key part of India’s strategy to achieve its climate targets and reduce dependence on fossil fuels in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, cement, and heavy transport.

Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis, a process that uses electricity to split water (H2​O) into hydrogen (H2​) and oxygen (O2​). This process is highly energy-intensive. The major component of the production cost (often 60-70%) is the cost of the electricity used. Therefore, for the hydrogen to be economically viable and “green,” the electricity must come from cheap and renewable sources like solar or wind. The economic feasibility of the entire mission hinges on India’s ability to produce renewable electricity at very low tariffs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The term “green” hydrogen specifically refers to hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources. Hydrogen produced using electricity from natural gas would be termed “grey hydrogen” (if the resulting CO2​ is released) or “blue hydrogen” (if the CO2​ is captured and stored). The defining characteristic of green hydrogen is its zero-carbon production pathway.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission with the aim of making India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of green hydrogen and its derivatives. This is a key part of India’s strategy to achieve its climate targets and reduce dependence on fossil fuels in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, cement, and heavy transport.

Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis, a process that uses electricity to split water (H2​O) into hydrogen (H2​) and oxygen (O2​). This process is highly energy-intensive. The major component of the production cost (often 60-70%) is the cost of the electricity used. Therefore, for the hydrogen to be economically viable and “green,” the electricity must come from cheap and renewable sources like solar or wind. The economic feasibility of the entire mission hinges on India’s ability to produce renewable electricity at very low tariffs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The term “green” hydrogen specifically refers to hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources. Hydrogen produced using electricity from natural gas would be termed “grey hydrogen” (if the resulting CO2​ is released) or “blue hydrogen” (if the CO2​ is captured and stored). The defining characteristic of green hydrogen is its zero-carbon production pathway.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Strengthening Legal Aid Mechanism in India, consider the following statements: The institutionalization of free legal aid was guided by the recommendations of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and formally established by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the primary body ensuring free legal representation to the economically weaker sections and marginalized groups. The Tele-Law programme, a digital platform for remote legal access, falls under the purview of NALSA and exclusively targets beneficiaries residing in rural areas. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, formally institutionalized legal aid under the guidance of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, who was a pioneer in this field. The Act was implemented in 1995. Statement 2 is correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), along with its State (SLSA) and District (DLSA) counterparts, is the key statutory body created under the 1987 Act. Its primary mandate is to deliver free legal services to the poor and marginalized, fulfilling the constitutional directive of Article 39A. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tele-Law programme is a key feature of the digital integration to strengthen legal access and does involve NALSA. While Tele-Law’s focus is significantly on remote and underserved areas, it is an integrated platform aimed at comprehensive legal assistance that can be accessed by all eligible beneficiaries, not strictly limited ‘exclusively’ to rural residents for all its functions, such as legal advice and consultation. Furthermore, the Tele-Law scheme often involves partnerships beyond just NALSA to ensure last-mile delivery. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, formally institutionalized legal aid under the guidance of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, who was a pioneer in this field. The Act was implemented in 1995. Statement 2 is correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), along with its State (SLSA) and District (DLSA) counterparts, is the key statutory body created under the 1987 Act. Its primary mandate is to deliver free legal services to the poor and marginalized, fulfilling the constitutional directive of Article 39A. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tele-Law programme is a key feature of the digital integration to strengthen legal access and does involve NALSA. While Tele-Law’s focus is significantly on remote and underserved areas, it is an integrated platform aimed at comprehensive legal assistance that can be accessed by all eligible beneficiaries, not strictly limited ‘exclusively’ to rural residents for all its functions, such as legal advice and consultation. Furthermore, the Tele-Law scheme often involves partnerships beyond just NALSA to ensure last-mile delivery.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Strengthening Legal Aid Mechanism in India, consider the following statements:

• The institutionalization of free legal aid was guided by the recommendations of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and formally established by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the primary body ensuring free legal representation to the economically weaker sections and marginalized groups.

• The Tele-Law programme, a digital platform for remote legal access, falls under the purview of NALSA and exclusively targets beneficiaries residing in rural areas.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, formally institutionalized legal aid under the guidance of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, who was a pioneer in this field. The Act was implemented in 1995.

Statement 2 is correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), along with its State (SLSA) and District (DLSA) counterparts, is the key statutory body created under the 1987 Act. Its primary mandate is to deliver free legal services to the poor and marginalized, fulfilling the constitutional directive of Article 39A.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tele-Law programme is a key feature of the digital integration to strengthen legal access and does involve NALSA. While Tele-Law’s focus is significantly on remote and underserved areas, it is an integrated platform aimed at comprehensive legal assistance that can be accessed by all eligible beneficiaries, not strictly limited ‘exclusively’ to rural residents for all its functions, such as legal advice and consultation. Furthermore, the Tele-Law scheme often involves partnerships beyond just NALSA to ensure last-mile delivery.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, formally institutionalized legal aid under the guidance of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, who was a pioneer in this field. The Act was implemented in 1995.

Statement 2 is correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), along with its State (SLSA) and District (DLSA) counterparts, is the key statutory body created under the 1987 Act. Its primary mandate is to deliver free legal services to the poor and marginalized, fulfilling the constitutional directive of Article 39A.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tele-Law programme is a key feature of the digital integration to strengthen legal access and does involve NALSA. While Tele-Law’s focus is significantly on remote and underserved areas, it is an integrated platform aimed at comprehensive legal assistance that can be accessed by all eligible beneficiaries, not strictly limited ‘exclusively’ to rural residents for all its functions, such as legal advice and consultation. Furthermore, the Tele-Law scheme often involves partnerships beyond just NALSA to ensure last-mile delivery.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to the poles. Statement II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The troposphere (the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs) is not uniform. It is thickest at the equator (approx. 16-18 km) and thinnest at the poles (approx. 6-8 km). Statement-II is correct. The equator receives intense solar radiation (insolation) throughout the year. This intense heating of the surface leads to strong, persistent convectional currents, where warm, moist air rises to great altitudes. The reason the troposphere is “pushed up” to a greater height at the equator is precisely this strong convection (Statement-II). The intense heating and rising air physically expand the vertical extent of this atmospheric layer. At the poles, the cold, dense air sinks, compressing the troposphere. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The troposphere (the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs) is not uniform. It is thickest at the equator (approx. 16-18 km) and thinnest at the poles (approx. 6-8 km). Statement-II is correct. The equator receives intense solar radiation (insolation) throughout the year. This intense heating of the surface leads to strong, persistent convectional currents, where warm, moist air rises to great altitudes. The reason the troposphere is “pushed up” to a greater height at the equator is precisely this strong convection (Statement-II). The intense heating and rising air physically expand the vertical extent of this atmospheric layer. At the poles, the cold, dense air sinks, compressing the troposphere. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to the poles.

Statement II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct. The troposphere (the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs) is not uniform. It is thickest at the equator (approx. 16-18 km) and thinnest at the poles (approx. 6-8 km).

Statement-II is correct. The equator receives intense solar radiation (insolation) throughout the year. This intense heating of the surface leads to strong, persistent convectional currents, where warm, moist air rises to great altitudes.

• The reason the troposphere is “pushed up” to a greater height at the equator is precisely this strong convection (Statement-II). The intense heating and rising air physically expand the vertical extent of this atmospheric layer. At the poles, the cold, dense air sinks, compressing the troposphere. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct. The troposphere (the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs) is not uniform. It is thickest at the equator (approx. 16-18 km) and thinnest at the poles (approx. 6-8 km).

Statement-II is correct. The equator receives intense solar radiation (insolation) throughout the year. This intense heating of the surface leads to strong, persistent convectional currents, where warm, moist air rises to great altitudes.

• The reason the troposphere is “pushed up” to a greater height at the equator is precisely this strong convection (Statement-II). The intense heating and rising air physically expand the vertical extent of this atmospheric layer. At the poles, the cold, dense air sinks, compressing the troposphere. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The 2024-25 period saw India’s electronics exports rise to become the third-largest export category. Statement II: A “China+1” strategy adopted by global corporations has led to a diversification of manufacturing and supply chains, benefiting countries like India. Statement III: India’s participation in the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) has enhanced trade resilience. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Electronics emerged as India’s third-largest export category in 2024-25. Statement II is correct. The “China+1” strategy is a well-documented global trend where companies diversify their supply chains away from a sole reliance on China. This has been a significant driver for manufacturing diversification, including in electronics, with India being a key beneficiary. This directly explains a reason for the growth in Statement I. Statement III is correct. India’s participation in frameworks like the IPEF (particularly its supply chain pillar) and new FTAs with countries like Australia and the UAE are policy actions taken to “enhance trade resilience” and integrate India into these new, diversified supply chains. This also explains a reason for the growth in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Electronics emerged as India’s third-largest export category in 2024-25. Statement II is correct. The “China+1” strategy is a well-documented global trend where companies diversify their supply chains away from a sole reliance on China. This has been a significant driver for manufacturing diversification, including in electronics, with India being a key beneficiary. This directly explains a reason for the growth in Statement I. Statement III is correct. India’s participation in frameworks like the IPEF (particularly its supply chain pillar) and new FTAs with countries like Australia and the UAE are policy actions taken to “enhance trade resilience” and integrate India into these new, diversified supply chains. This also explains a reason for the growth in Statement I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The 2024-25 period saw India’s electronics exports rise to become the third-largest export category.

Statement II: A “China+1” strategy adopted by global corporations has led to a diversification of manufacturing and supply chains, benefiting countries like India.

Statement III: India’s participation in the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) has enhanced trade resilience.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

Statement I is correct. Electronics emerged as India’s third-largest export category in 2024-25.

Statement II is correct. The “China+1” strategy is a well-documented global trend where companies diversify their supply chains away from a sole reliance on China. This has been a significant driver for manufacturing diversification, including in electronics, with India being a key beneficiary. This directly explains a reason for the growth in Statement I.

Statement III is correct. India’s participation in frameworks like the IPEF (particularly its supply chain pillar) and new FTAs with countries like Australia and the UAE are policy actions taken to “enhance trade resilience” and integrate India into these new, diversified supply chains. This also explains a reason for the growth in Statement I.

Solution: A

Statement I is correct. Electronics emerged as India’s third-largest export category in 2024-25.

Statement II is correct. The “China+1” strategy is a well-documented global trend where companies diversify their supply chains away from a sole reliance on China. This has been a significant driver for manufacturing diversification, including in electronics, with India being a key beneficiary. This directly explains a reason for the growth in Statement I.

Statement III is correct. India’s participation in frameworks like the IPEF (particularly its supply chain pillar) and new FTAs with countries like Australia and the UAE are policy actions taken to “enhance trade resilience” and integrate India into these new, diversified supply chains. This also explains a reason for the growth in Statement I.

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