UPSC Editorials Quiz : 13 May 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to Private Member’s Bills (PMBs) in India, consider the following statements: The parliamentary committee that examines PMBs related to general legislation is the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions. Historically, the number of PMBs enacted into law is significantly lower than government bills. A PMB seeking to amend the Constitution of India cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions is specifically tasked with examining Private Member’s Bills. This committee classifies bills according to their nature, urgency, and importance, allocates time for their discussion, and can recommend whether a bill should be taken up for consideration. Its role is crucial in managing the legislative time available for PMBs, which is typically limited (e.g., Fridays). Statement 2 is correct. Historically, the success rate of PMBs being enacted into law is very low compared to government bills. Government bills have the backing of the executive and command a majority in the House (usually), making their passage smoother. PMBs, reflecting individual MP initiatives, often lack such broad support and may not align with the government’s legislative agenda. While many PMBs are introduced, only a handful have become Acts since independence. Statement 3 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill seeking to amend the Constitution of India can be introduced in either House of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There is no restriction preventing the introduction of a constitutional amendment bill by a private member in the Rajya Sabha. Like any constitutional amendment bill, it would need to be passed by a special majority in both Houses. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions is specifically tasked with examining Private Member’s Bills. This committee classifies bills according to their nature, urgency, and importance, allocates time for their discussion, and can recommend whether a bill should be taken up for consideration. Its role is crucial in managing the legislative time available for PMBs, which is typically limited (e.g., Fridays). Statement 2 is correct. Historically, the success rate of PMBs being enacted into law is very low compared to government bills. Government bills have the backing of the executive and command a majority in the House (usually), making their passage smoother. PMBs, reflecting individual MP initiatives, often lack such broad support and may not align with the government’s legislative agenda. While many PMBs are introduced, only a handful have become Acts since independence. Statement 3 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill seeking to amend the Constitution of India can be introduced in either House of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There is no restriction preventing the introduction of a constitutional amendment bill by a private member in the Rajya Sabha. Like any constitutional amendment bill, it would need to be passed by a special majority in both Houses.
#### 1. Question
With reference to Private Member’s Bills (PMBs) in India, consider the following statements:
• The parliamentary committee that examines PMBs related to general legislation is the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions.
• Historically, the number of PMBs enacted into law is significantly lower than government bills.
• A PMB seeking to amend the Constitution of India cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions is specifically tasked with examining Private Member’s Bills. This committee classifies bills according to their nature, urgency, and importance, allocates time for their discussion, and can recommend whether a bill should be taken up for consideration. Its role is crucial in managing the legislative time available for PMBs, which is typically limited (e.g., Fridays).
• Statement 2 is correct. Historically, the success rate of PMBs being enacted into law is very low compared to government bills. Government bills have the backing of the executive and command a majority in the House (usually), making their passage smoother. PMBs, reflecting individual MP initiatives, often lack such broad support and may not align with the government’s legislative agenda. While many PMBs are introduced, only a handful have become Acts since independence.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill seeking to amend the Constitution of India can be introduced in either House of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There is no restriction preventing the introduction of a constitutional amendment bill by a private member in the Rajya Sabha. Like any constitutional amendment bill, it would need to be passed by a special majority in both Houses.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions is specifically tasked with examining Private Member’s Bills. This committee classifies bills according to their nature, urgency, and importance, allocates time for their discussion, and can recommend whether a bill should be taken up for consideration. Its role is crucial in managing the legislative time available for PMBs, which is typically limited (e.g., Fridays).
• Statement 2 is correct. Historically, the success rate of PMBs being enacted into law is very low compared to government bills. Government bills have the backing of the executive and command a majority in the House (usually), making their passage smoother. PMBs, reflecting individual MP initiatives, often lack such broad support and may not align with the government’s legislative agenda. While many PMBs are introduced, only a handful have become Acts since independence.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill seeking to amend the Constitution of India can be introduced in either House of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There is no restriction preventing the introduction of a constitutional amendment bill by a private member in the Rajya Sabha. Like any constitutional amendment bill, it would need to be passed by a special majority in both Houses.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances (WDs): WDs are tropical cyclones that primarily affect the Indian subcontinent during the monsoon season. They originate exclusively over the Mediterranean Sea and gain moisture as they travel eastward. The subtropical westerly jet stream plays a crucial role in steering WDs towards India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are extra-tropical cyclones, not tropical cyclones. They primarily bring precipitation to northern India during the winter season, not the monsoon season. Their impact is most pronounced from December to February. Statement 2 is incorrect. While WDs do originate over the Mediterranean Sea, they also form over the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea. They pick up moisture from these water bodies before moving towards the Indian subcontinent. The term “exclusively” makes this statement inaccurate. Statement 3 is correct. Western Disturbances travel along the subtropical westerly jet stream, which exists at high altitudes. This jet stream acts as a steering mechanism, guiding these weather systems from the west towards northern India, especially over the Himalayas. The interaction with the Himalayas often intensifies their impact. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are extra-tropical cyclones, not tropical cyclones. They primarily bring precipitation to northern India during the winter season, not the monsoon season. Their impact is most pronounced from December to February. Statement 2 is incorrect. While WDs do originate over the Mediterranean Sea, they also form over the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea. They pick up moisture from these water bodies before moving towards the Indian subcontinent. The term “exclusively” makes this statement inaccurate. Statement 3 is correct. Western Disturbances travel along the subtropical westerly jet stream, which exists at high altitudes. This jet stream acts as a steering mechanism, guiding these weather systems from the west towards northern India, especially over the Himalayas. The interaction with the Himalayas often intensifies their impact.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances (WDs):
• WDs are tropical cyclones that primarily affect the Indian subcontinent during the monsoon season.
• They originate exclusively over the Mediterranean Sea and gain moisture as they travel eastward.
• The subtropical westerly jet stream plays a crucial role in steering WDs towards India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are extra-tropical cyclones, not tropical cyclones. They primarily bring precipitation to northern India during the winter season, not the monsoon season. Their impact is most pronounced from December to February.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While WDs do originate over the Mediterranean Sea, they also form over the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea. They pick up moisture from these water bodies before moving towards the Indian subcontinent. The term “exclusively” makes this statement inaccurate.
• Statement 3 is correct. Western Disturbances travel along the subtropical westerly jet stream, which exists at high altitudes. This jet stream acts as a steering mechanism, guiding these weather systems from the west towards northern India, especially over the Himalayas. The interaction with the Himalayas often intensifies their impact.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are extra-tropical cyclones, not tropical cyclones. They primarily bring precipitation to northern India during the winter season, not the monsoon season. Their impact is most pronounced from December to February.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While WDs do originate over the Mediterranean Sea, they also form over the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea. They pick up moisture from these water bodies before moving towards the Indian subcontinent. The term “exclusively” makes this statement inaccurate.
• Statement 3 is correct. Western Disturbances travel along the subtropical westerly jet stream, which exists at high altitudes. This jet stream acts as a steering mechanism, guiding these weather systems from the west towards northern India, especially over the Himalayas. The interaction with the Himalayas often intensifies their impact.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following best describes the constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India? (a) The Preamble of the Constitution, which declares India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. (b) Article 75 of the Constitution, which stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. (c) The powers vested in the President of India to summon and prorogue Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. (d) The directive principles of state policy, which guide the state in law-making and governance. Correct Solution: b) The core constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India is Article 75(3) of the Constitution. This article explicitly states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).” This principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock of India’s parliamentary democracy, ensuring that the executive (government) is answerable to the legislature (Parliament). Option (a) is incorrect because while the Preamble outlines the nature of the Indian state, it does not directly provide the mechanism for parliamentary oversight. Option (c) is incorrect as the President’s powers to summon, prorogue, or dissolve are procedural aspects of Parliament’s functioning, not the direct basis for oversight of the executive by the legislature. Option (d) is incorrect because Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for governance and are non-justiciable; they do not establish the direct accountability mechanism of the executive to the legislature that parliamentary oversight entails. Incorrect Solution: b) The core constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India is Article 75(3) of the Constitution. This article explicitly states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).” This principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock of India’s parliamentary democracy, ensuring that the executive (government) is answerable to the legislature (Parliament). Option (a) is incorrect because while the Preamble outlines the nature of the Indian state, it does not directly provide the mechanism for parliamentary oversight. Option (c) is incorrect as the President’s powers to summon, prorogue, or dissolve are procedural aspects of Parliament’s functioning, not the direct basis for oversight of the executive by the legislature. Option (d) is incorrect because Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for governance and are non-justiciable; they do not establish the direct accountability mechanism of the executive to the legislature that parliamentary oversight entails.
#### 3. Question
Which of the following best describes the constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India?
• (a) The Preamble of the Constitution, which declares India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic.
• (b) Article 75 of the Constitution, which stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• (c) The powers vested in the President of India to summon and prorogue Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• (d) The directive principles of state policy, which guide the state in law-making and governance.
Solution: b)
The core constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India is Article 75(3) of the Constitution. This article explicitly states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).” This principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock of India’s parliamentary democracy, ensuring that the executive (government) is answerable to the legislature (Parliament).
Option (a) is incorrect because while the Preamble outlines the nature of the Indian state, it does not directly provide the mechanism for parliamentary oversight.
Option (c) is incorrect as the President’s powers to summon, prorogue, or dissolve are procedural aspects of Parliament’s functioning, not the direct basis for oversight of the executive by the legislature.
Option (d) is incorrect because Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for governance and are non-justiciable; they do not establish the direct accountability mechanism of the executive to the legislature that parliamentary oversight entails.
Solution: b)
The core constitutional basis for Parliamentary Oversight in India is Article 75(3) of the Constitution. This article explicitly states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).” This principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock of India’s parliamentary democracy, ensuring that the executive (government) is answerable to the legislature (Parliament).
Option (a) is incorrect because while the Preamble outlines the nature of the Indian state, it does not directly provide the mechanism for parliamentary oversight.
Option (c) is incorrect as the President’s powers to summon, prorogue, or dissolve are procedural aspects of Parliament’s functioning, not the direct basis for oversight of the executive by the legislature.
Option (d) is incorrect because Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for governance and are non-justiciable; they do not establish the direct accountability mechanism of the executive to the legislature that parliamentary oversight entails.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances (WDs) and their impact: WDs contribute significantly to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal. Frequent WDs during summer months can lead to a moderation of heatwave intensity across northwest India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are associated with weather patterns in northern and northwestern India, primarily during winter. They are extra-tropical cyclones originating in the west and do not directly contribute to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal, which have different formation mechanisms and geographical focus. Statement 3 is correct. While WDs are most prominent in winter, their activity can extend into the pre-monsoon and even summer months. Frequent WDs during summer can bring cloud cover and occasional light rain or thunderstorms to northwest and central India, which helps in moderating the intensity of heatwaves by lowering temperatures. Therefore, only one statement (Statement 3) is correct. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are associated with weather patterns in northern and northwestern India, primarily during winter. They are extra-tropical cyclones originating in the west and do not directly contribute to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal, which have different formation mechanisms and geographical focus. Statement 3 is correct. While WDs are most prominent in winter, their activity can extend into the pre-monsoon and even summer months. Frequent WDs during summer can bring cloud cover and occasional light rain or thunderstorms to northwest and central India, which helps in moderating the intensity of heatwaves by lowering temperatures. Therefore, only one statement (Statement 3) is correct.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances (WDs) and their impact:
• WDs contribute significantly to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal.
• Frequent WDs during summer months can lead to a moderation of heatwave intensity across northwest India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are associated with weather patterns in northern and northwestern India, primarily during winter. They are extra-tropical cyclones originating in the west and do not directly contribute to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal, which have different formation mechanisms and geographical focus.
• Statement 3 is correct. While WDs are most prominent in winter, their activity can extend into the pre-monsoon and even summer months. Frequent WDs during summer can bring cloud cover and occasional light rain or thunderstorms to northwest and central India, which helps in moderating the intensity of heatwaves by lowering temperatures. Therefore, only one statement (Statement 3) is correct.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Western Disturbances are associated with weather patterns in northern and northwestern India, primarily during winter. They are extra-tropical cyclones originating in the west and do not directly contribute to pre-monsoon cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal, which have different formation mechanisms and geographical focus.
• Statement 3 is correct. While WDs are most prominent in winter, their activity can extend into the pre-monsoon and even summer months. Frequent WDs during summer can bring cloud cover and occasional light rain or thunderstorms to northwest and central India, which helps in moderating the intensity of heatwaves by lowering temperatures. Therefore, only one statement (Statement 3) is correct.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Match the following Parliamentary Devices (Column I) with their primary purpose or characteristic (Column II): Column I (Parliamentary Device) Column II (Primary Purpose/Characteristic) A. Question Hour 1. Testing the majority support for the Council of Ministers in Lok Sabha B. Zero Hour 2. Daily instrument for seeking information from Ministers on administration C. Adjournment Motion 3. Device for members to raise matters without prior notice D. No-Confidence Motion 4. Raising matters of urgent public importance with an element of censure Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Correct Solution: a) Question Hour (matches 2): This is typically the first hour of a parliamentary sitting. It is a crucial device for members to ask questions to Ministers regarding various aspects of administration and government policy, thereby ensuring daily accountability. Zero Hour (matches 3): This is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It starts immediately after the Question Hour and allows members to raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice to the Speaker/Chairman. It is not formally recognized in parliamentary rule books but has become a convention. Adjournment Motion (matches 4): This motion is used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. Its adoption implies a censure of the government, even if not as severe as a no-confidence motion. It requires interrupting the normal business of the House. No-Confidence Motion (matches 1): This motion is a cornerstone of parliamentary democracy, specifically provided for in the rules of the Lok Sabha. If passed, it demonstrates that the Council of Ministers no longer enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha, leading to the government’s resignation. Article 75 mandates collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha. Incorrect Solution: a) Question Hour (matches 2): This is typically the first hour of a parliamentary sitting. It is a crucial device for members to ask questions to Ministers regarding various aspects of administration and government policy, thereby ensuring daily accountability. Zero Hour (matches 3): This is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It starts immediately after the Question Hour and allows members to raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice to the Speaker/Chairman. It is not formally recognized in parliamentary rule books but has become a convention. Adjournment Motion (matches 4): This motion is used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. Its adoption implies a censure of the government, even if not as severe as a no-confidence motion. It requires interrupting the normal business of the House. No-Confidence Motion (matches 1): This motion is a cornerstone of parliamentary democracy, specifically provided for in the rules of the Lok Sabha. If passed, it demonstrates that the Council of Ministers no longer enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha, leading to the government’s resignation. Article 75 mandates collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha.
#### 5. Question
Match the following Parliamentary Devices (Column I) with their primary purpose or characteristic (Column II):
Column I (Parliamentary Device) | Column II (Primary Purpose/Characteristic)
A. Question Hour | 1. Testing the majority support for the Council of Ministers in Lok Sabha
B. Zero Hour | 2. Daily instrument for seeking information from Ministers on administration
C. Adjournment Motion | 3. Device for members to raise matters without prior notice
D. No-Confidence Motion | 4. Raising matters of urgent public importance with an element of censure
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
• (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
• (c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
• (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Solution: a)
• Question Hour (matches 2): This is typically the first hour of a parliamentary sitting. It is a crucial device for members to ask questions to Ministers regarding various aspects of administration and government policy, thereby ensuring daily accountability.
• Zero Hour (matches 3): This is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It starts immediately after the Question Hour and allows members to raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice to the Speaker/Chairman. It is not formally recognized in parliamentary rule books but has become a convention.
• Adjournment Motion (matches 4): This motion is used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. Its adoption implies a censure of the government, even if not as severe as a no-confidence motion. It requires interrupting the normal business of the House.
• No-Confidence Motion (matches 1): This motion is a cornerstone of parliamentary democracy, specifically provided for in the rules of the Lok Sabha. If passed, it demonstrates that the Council of Ministers no longer enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha, leading to the government’s resignation. Article 75 mandates collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha.
Solution: a)
• Question Hour (matches 2): This is typically the first hour of a parliamentary sitting. It is a crucial device for members to ask questions to Ministers regarding various aspects of administration and government policy, thereby ensuring daily accountability.
• Zero Hour (matches 3): This is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It starts immediately after the Question Hour and allows members to raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice to the Speaker/Chairman. It is not formally recognized in parliamentary rule books but has become a convention.
• Adjournment Motion (matches 4): This motion is used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. Its adoption implies a censure of the government, even if not as severe as a no-confidence motion. It requires interrupting the normal business of the House.
• No-Confidence Motion (matches 1): This motion is a cornerstone of parliamentary democracy, specifically provided for in the rules of the Lok Sabha. If passed, it demonstrates that the Council of Ministers no longer enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha, leading to the government’s resignation. Article 75 mandates collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha.
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