UPSC Editorials Quiz : 13 February 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Debt-to-GDP ratio and its implications: A higher ratio indicates a lower capacity to repay debts. Countries with higher Debt-to-GDP ratios always experience economic crises. A rising Debt-to-GDP ratio can increase interest payments on government bonds. A country can have a high Debt-to-GDP ratio and still maintain financial stability. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) A country’s Debt-to-GDP ratio measures its debt relative to its economic output, indicating its ability to manage and repay its obligations. A higher ratio often signals a greater debt burden, making repayment challenging, which is why Statement 1 is correct. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because while a high ratio increases risk, it does not automatically lead to an economic crisis. Countries like Japan have sustained high debt levels for years due to factors like domestic investment and low interest rates. Statement 3 is correct since rising debt typically leads to higher interest payments on government bonds, increasing fiscal pressure. Statement 4 is also correct as financial stability depends on multiple factors, including economic growth, investor confidence, and monetary policy. For instance, the U.S. has managed a high Debt-to-GDP ratio without immediate instability. Incorrect Solution: c) A country’s Debt-to-GDP ratio measures its debt relative to its economic output, indicating its ability to manage and repay its obligations. A higher ratio often signals a greater debt burden, making repayment challenging, which is why Statement 1 is correct. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because while a high ratio increases risk, it does not automatically lead to an economic crisis. Countries like Japan have sustained high debt levels for years due to factors like domestic investment and low interest rates. Statement 3 is correct since rising debt typically leads to higher interest payments on government bonds, increasing fiscal pressure. Statement 4 is also correct as financial stability depends on multiple factors, including economic growth, investor confidence, and monetary policy. For instance, the U.S. has managed a high Debt-to-GDP ratio without immediate instability.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Debt-to-GDP ratio and its implications:

• A higher ratio indicates a lower capacity to repay debts.

• Countries with higher Debt-to-GDP ratios always experience economic crises.

• A rising Debt-to-GDP ratio can increase interest payments on government bonds.

• A country can have a high Debt-to-GDP ratio and still maintain financial stability.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

• A country’s Debt-to-GDP ratio measures its debt relative to its economic output, indicating its ability to manage and repay its obligations. A higher ratio often signals a greater debt burden, making repayment challenging, which is why Statement 1 is correct.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect because while a high ratio increases risk, it does not automatically lead to an economic crisis. Countries like Japan have sustained high debt levels for years due to factors like domestic investment and low interest rates.

• Statement 3 is correct since rising debt typically leads to higher interest payments on government bonds, increasing fiscal pressure.

• Statement 4 is also correct as financial stability depends on multiple factors, including economic growth, investor confidence, and monetary policy. For instance, the U.S. has managed a high Debt-to-GDP ratio without immediate instability.

Solution: c)

• Statement 3 is correct since rising debt typically leads to higher interest payments on government bonds, increasing fiscal pressure.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about the Trickle-Down approach: It relies on tax cuts for corporations and wealthy individuals to drive economic growth. It assumes that increased private sector investment will lead to job creation and wage growth. It has led to universal income growth in countries that have fully implemented it. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) The Trickle-Down approach is an economic theory suggesting that benefits given to the wealthy and corporations eventually “trickle down” to the rest of society. Statement 1 is correct because this approach typically involves tax cuts for high-income individuals and businesses to encourage investment and economic expansion. Statement 2 is also correct, as Trickle-Down theory assumes that when the private sector flourishes, it leads to increased investments, job creation, and wage growth, benefiting the broader economy. However, Statement 3 is incorrect since real-world evidence does not support the claim that Trickle-Down policies lead to universal income growth. Instead, studies have shown that such policies often result in greater income inequality, with wealth accumulation concentrated among the richest while lower-income groups see little to no significant improvement. Countries like the S. and the U.K. have implemented Trickle-Down strategies, but wage stagnation and inequality have persisted. Incorrect Solution: b) The Trickle-Down approach is an economic theory suggesting that benefits given to the wealthy and corporations eventually “trickle down” to the rest of society. Statement 1 is correct because this approach typically involves tax cuts for high-income individuals and businesses to encourage investment and economic expansion. Statement 2 is also correct, as Trickle-Down theory assumes that when the private sector flourishes, it leads to increased investments, job creation, and wage growth, benefiting the broader economy. However, Statement 3 is incorrect since real-world evidence does not support the claim that Trickle-Down policies lead to universal income growth. Instead, studies have shown that such policies often result in greater income inequality, with wealth accumulation concentrated among the richest while lower-income groups see little to no significant improvement. Countries like the S. and the U.K. have implemented Trickle-Down strategies, but wage stagnation and inequality have persisted.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Trickle-Down approach:

• It relies on tax cuts for corporations and wealthy individuals to drive economic growth.

• It assumes that increased private sector investment will lead to job creation and wage growth.

• It has led to universal income growth in countries that have fully implemented it.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

• The Trickle-Down approach is an economic theory suggesting that benefits given to the wealthy and corporations eventually “trickle down” to the rest of society.

• Statement 1 is correct because this approach typically involves tax cuts for high-income individuals and businesses to encourage investment and economic expansion.

• Statement 2 is also correct, as Trickle-Down theory assumes that when the private sector flourishes, it leads to increased investments, job creation, and wage growth, benefiting the broader economy.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect since real-world evidence does not support the claim that Trickle-Down policies lead to universal income growth. Instead, studies have shown that such policies often result in greater income inequality, with wealth accumulation concentrated among the richest while lower-income groups see little to no significant improvement.

• Countries like the S. and the U.K. have implemented Trickle-Down strategies, but wage stagnation and inequality have persisted.

Solution: b)

• The Trickle-Down approach is an economic theory suggesting that benefits given to the wealthy and corporations eventually “trickle down” to the rest of society.

• Statement 1 is correct because this approach typically involves tax cuts for high-income individuals and businesses to encourage investment and economic expansion.

• Countries like the S. and the U.K. have implemented Trickle-Down strategies, but wage stagnation and inequality have persisted.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Article 85 and Article 174 of the Indian Constitution? a) It mandates that the Parliament must meet at least thrice a year. b) It states that the President can dissolve the House of People only on the advice of the Chief Justice of India. c) It specifies that the gap between two parliamentary sessions must not exceed six months. d) The Governor has the discretionary power to refuse the convening of a legislative session in the state. Correct Solution: c) Article 85 (for Parliament) and Article 174 (for State Legislature) of the Constitution do not mandate a minimum number of sittings, but they do state that the gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months. This ensures regular legislative scrutiny of government actions. The President dissolves the House of People (Lok Sabha) on the advice of the Prime Minister, not the Chief Justice of India. Similarly, the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers when convening legislative sessions, and cannot refuse unless advised by the state cabinet. Incorrect Solution: c) Article 85 (for Parliament) and Article 174 (for State Legislature) of the Constitution do not mandate a minimum number of sittings, but they do state that the gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months. This ensures regular legislative scrutiny of government actions. The President dissolves the House of People (Lok Sabha) on the advice of the Prime Minister, not the Chief Justice of India. Similarly, the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers when convening legislative sessions, and cannot refuse unless advised by the state cabinet.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Article 85 and Article 174 of the Indian Constitution?

• a) It mandates that the Parliament must meet at least thrice a year.

• b) It states that the President can dissolve the House of People only on the advice of the Chief Justice of India.

• c) It specifies that the gap between two parliamentary sessions must not exceed six months.

• d) The Governor has the discretionary power to refuse the convening of a legislative session in the state.

Solution: c)

Article 85 (for Parliament) and Article 174 (for State Legislature) of the Constitution do not mandate a minimum number of sittings, but they do state that the gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months. This ensures regular legislative scrutiny of government actions. The President dissolves the House of People (Lok Sabha) on the advice of the Prime Minister, not the Chief Justice of India. Similarly, the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers when convening legislative sessions, and cannot refuse unless advised by the state cabinet.

Solution: c)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following correctly describes deportation? a) It is the voluntary departure of an immigrant from a country. b) It is the legal process of granting asylum to refugees. c) It is the forced removal of a foreign national due to visa violations or threats to public safety. d) It is a policy to provide work permits to illegal migrants under international human rights law. Correct Solution: c) Deportation refers to the forced removal of foreign nationals from a country due to reasons such as visa violations, illegal entry, criminal activities, or threats to public security. In the United States, deportation is handled by Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE). Deportation does not involve voluntary departure or asylum. While some international agreements influence deportation policies, it is not governed by human rights laws providing work permits to illegal migrants. Incorrect Solution: c) Deportation refers to the forced removal of foreign nationals from a country due to reasons such as visa violations, illegal entry, criminal activities, or threats to public security. In the United States, deportation is handled by Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE). Deportation does not involve voluntary departure or asylum. While some international agreements influence deportation policies, it is not governed by human rights laws providing work permits to illegal migrants.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following correctly describes deportation?

• a) It is the voluntary departure of an immigrant from a country.

• b) It is the legal process of granting asylum to refugees.

• c) It is the forced removal of a foreign national due to visa violations or threats to public safety.

• d) It is a policy to provide work permits to illegal migrants under international human rights law.

Solution: c)

Deportation refers to the forced removal of foreign nationals from a country due to reasons such as visa violations, illegal entry, criminal activities, or threats to public security. In the United States, deportation is handled by Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE). Deportation does not involve voluntary departure or asylum. While some international agreements influence deportation policies, it is not governed by human rights laws providing work permits to illegal migrants.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the recently introduced ‘bank.in’ domain. Statement-I: The ‘bank.in’ domain ensures that only RBI-regulated financial institutions can operate verified banking websites in India. Statement-II: The ‘bank.in’ initiative completely eliminates the risk of cyber fraud in Indian banking. Select the correct answer code: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: c) The ‘bank.in’ domain has been introduced to enhance security in India’s banking sector by ensuring that only RBI-regulated financial institutions can operate websites under this domain. This measure aims to protect consumers from fraudulent banking websites. Statement-I is correct because it establishes domain authenticity, making it harder for scammers to impersonate legitimate banks. However, Statement-II is incorrect because while this initiative significantly reduces the risk of cyber fraud, it does not entirely eliminate it. Cybercriminals constantly develop new methods, such as phishing, malware, and social engineering, to bypass security measures. Even with verified domains, users must remain cautious and implement cybersecurity best practices. Incorrect Solution: c) The ‘bank.in’ domain has been introduced to enhance security in India’s banking sector by ensuring that only RBI-regulated financial institutions can operate websites under this domain. This measure aims to protect consumers from fraudulent banking websites. Statement-I is correct because it establishes domain authenticity, making it harder for scammers to impersonate legitimate banks. However, Statement-II is incorrect because while this initiative significantly reduces the risk of cyber fraud, it does not entirely eliminate it. Cybercriminals constantly develop new methods, such as phishing, malware, and social engineering, to bypass security measures. Even with verified domains, users must remain cautious and implement cybersecurity best practices.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the recently introduced ‘bank.in’ domain.

Statement-I: The ‘bank.in’ domain ensures that only RBI-regulated financial institutions can operate verified banking websites in India. Statement-II: The ‘bank.in’ initiative completely eliminates the risk of cyber fraud in Indian banking.

Select the correct answer code:

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: c)

The ‘bank.in’ domain has been introduced to enhance security in India’s banking sector by ensuring that only RBI-regulated financial institutions can operate websites under this domain. This measure aims to protect consumers from fraudulent banking websites.

Statement-I is correct because it establishes domain authenticity, making it harder for scammers to impersonate legitimate banks.

However, Statement-II is incorrect because while this initiative significantly reduces the risk of cyber fraud, it does not entirely eliminate it. Cybercriminals constantly develop new methods, such as phishing, malware, and social engineering, to bypass security measures. Even with verified domains, users must remain cautious and implement cybersecurity best practices.

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct because it establishes domain authenticity, making it harder for scammers to impersonate legitimate banks.

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