UPSC Editorials Quiz : 12 November 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question What is the primary condition for Lake-Effect Snow to occur? a) Warm air interacting with cold lake waters b) Frozen lake surfaces with high atmospheric moisture c) Stable atmospheric conditions with low wind speed d) Cold air interacting with warmer, unfrozen lake waters Correct Solution: D Lake-Effect Snow forms when cold air passes over warmer, unfrozen lakes, transferring moisture and heat from the lake to the atmosphere, leading to intense snowfall. About Lake-Effect Snow: What it is:A localized weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes. Found in:Common in regions near the Great Lakes in the United States, particularly in states like New York, Michigan, Ohio, and Pennsylvania. How it forms: Cold air, often from Canada, moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes. The warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere. Rising air cools, forming narrow bands of clouds that generate snowfall at rates of 2–3 inches per hour or more. Incorrect Solution: D Lake-Effect Snow forms when cold air passes over warmer, unfrozen lakes, transferring moisture and heat from the lake to the atmosphere, leading to intense snowfall. About Lake-Effect Snow: What it is:A localized weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes. Found in:Common in regions near the Great Lakes in the United States, particularly in states like New York, Michigan, Ohio, and Pennsylvania. How it forms: Cold air, often from Canada, moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes. The warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere. Rising air cools, forming narrow bands of clouds that generate snowfall at rates of 2–3 inches per hour or more.
#### 1. Question
What is the primary condition for Lake-Effect Snow to occur?
• a) Warm air interacting with cold lake waters
• b) Frozen lake surfaces with high atmospheric moisture
• c) Stable atmospheric conditions with low wind speed
• d) Cold air interacting with warmer, unfrozen lake waters
Solution: D
Lake-Effect Snow forms when cold air passes over warmer, unfrozen lakes, transferring moisture and heat from the lake to the atmosphere, leading to intense snowfall.
About Lake-Effect Snow:
• What it is:A localized weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes.
• Found in:Common in regions near the Great Lakes in the United States, particularly in states like New York, Michigan, Ohio, and Pennsylvania.
How it forms:
• Cold air, often from Canada, moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes.
• The warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere.
• Rising air cools, forming narrow bands of clouds that generate snowfall at rates of 2–3 inches per hour or more.
Solution: D
Lake-Effect Snow forms when cold air passes over warmer, unfrozen lakes, transferring moisture and heat from the lake to the atmosphere, leading to intense snowfall.
About Lake-Effect Snow:
• What it is:A localized weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes.
• Found in:Common in regions near the Great Lakes in the United States, particularly in states like New York, Michigan, Ohio, and Pennsylvania.
How it forms:
• Cold air, often from Canada, moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes.
• The warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere.
• Rising air cools, forming narrow bands of clouds that generate snowfall at rates of 2–3 inches per hour or more.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Windfall Gains Tax: It was introduced in India to manage domestic fuel shortages. The tax applies only to domestic oil companies and excludes private refiners. It helps in generating additional government revenue during periods of high crude prices. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1: Correct. The tax was introduced in July 2022, partly to address domestic fuel shortages by curbing exports. Statement 2: Incorrect. The tax applies to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations. Statement 3: Correct. It generates additional revenue for the government, cushioning the impact of domestic fuel duty cuts. About Windfall Gains Tax: Introduced in: July 2022 amid soaring global oil prices post-Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. What it is: A tax imposed to capture super-normal profits earned by oil producers and fuel exporters during times of high global crude prices. Aim: To curb export-induced domestic shortages and capture excess profits for government revenue. Products covered: Domestic crude oil, diesel, petrol, and ATF. GST Status: Not under GST; levied as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) and Additional Excise Duty (AED). Applicable to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations operating in India. Impacts on Indian Economy: Positive: Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts. Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil. Negative: Discouraged private refiners from boosting production. Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1: Correct. The tax was introduced in July 2022, partly to address domestic fuel shortages by curbing exports. Statement 2: Incorrect. The tax applies to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations. Statement 3: Correct. It generates additional revenue for the government, cushioning the impact of domestic fuel duty cuts. About Windfall Gains Tax: Introduced in: July 2022 amid soaring global oil prices post-Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. What it is: A tax imposed to capture super-normal profits earned by oil producers and fuel exporters during times of high global crude prices. Aim: To curb export-induced domestic shortages and capture excess profits for government revenue. Products covered: Domestic crude oil, diesel, petrol, and ATF. GST Status: Not under GST; levied as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) and Additional Excise Duty (AED). Applicable to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations operating in India. Impacts on Indian Economy: Positive: Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts. Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil. Negative: Discouraged private refiners from boosting production. Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Windfall Gains Tax:
• It was introduced in India to manage domestic fuel shortages.
• The tax applies only to domestic oil companies and excludes private refiners.
• It helps in generating additional government revenue during periods of high crude prices.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1: Correct. The tax was introduced in July 2022, partly to address domestic fuel shortages by curbing exports.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The tax applies to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations.
Statement 3: Correct. It generates additional revenue for the government, cushioning the impact of domestic fuel duty cuts.
About Windfall Gains Tax:
• Introduced in: July 2022 amid soaring global oil prices post-Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.
• What it is: A tax imposed to capture super-normal profits earned by oil producers and fuel exporters during times of high global crude prices.
• Aim: To curb export-induced domestic shortages and capture excess profits for government revenue.
• Products covered: Domestic crude oil, diesel, petrol, and ATF.
• GST Status: Not under GST; levied as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) and Additional Excise Duty (AED).
• Applicable to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations operating in India.
Impacts on Indian Economy:
• Positive: Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts. Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil.
• Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts.
• Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil.
• Negative: Discouraged private refiners from boosting production. Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment.
• Discouraged private refiners from boosting production.
• Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment.
Solution: A
Statement 1: Correct. The tax was introduced in July 2022, partly to address domestic fuel shortages by curbing exports.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The tax applies to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations.
Statement 3: Correct. It generates additional revenue for the government, cushioning the impact of domestic fuel duty cuts.
About Windfall Gains Tax:
• Introduced in: July 2022 amid soaring global oil prices post-Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.
• What it is: A tax imposed to capture super-normal profits earned by oil producers and fuel exporters during times of high global crude prices.
• Aim: To curb export-induced domestic shortages and capture excess profits for government revenue.
• Products covered: Domestic crude oil, diesel, petrol, and ATF.
• GST Status: Not under GST; levied as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) and Additional Excise Duty (AED).
• Applicable to both domestic and private oil firms, including multinational corporations operating in India.
Impacts on Indian Economy:
• Positive: Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts. Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil.
• Helped generate ₹25,000 crore in FY23, cushioning revenue loss from domestic fuel duty cuts.
• Ensured steady domestic fuel supply during global energy turmoil.
• Negative: Discouraged private refiners from boosting production. Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment.
• Discouraged private refiners from boosting production.
• Created an unpredictable tax regime, affecting investor sentiment.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements about copper in India: India is self-sufficient in refined copper production. Copper is known for its antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties. The Surda Mine is located in Rajasthan. Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect as India imports 30-40% of its refined copper due to insufficient domestic production. Statement 2 is correct because copper’s antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties are well-known. Statement 3 is incorrect since the Surda Mine is located in Jharkhand, not Rajasthan. Statement 4 is correct as Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect as India imports 30-40% of its refined copper due to insufficient domestic production. Statement 2 is correct because copper’s antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties are well-known. Statement 3 is incorrect since the Surda Mine is located in Jharkhand, not Rajasthan. Statement 4 is correct as Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about copper in India:
• India is self-sufficient in refined copper production.
• Copper is known for its antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties.
• The Surda Mine is located in Rajasthan.
• Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: B
Statement 1 is incorrect as India imports 30-40% of its refined copper due to insufficient domestic production.
Statement 2 is correct because copper’s antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties are well-known.
Statement 3 is incorrect since the Surda Mine is located in Jharkhand, not Rajasthan.
Statement 4 is correct as Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India.
Solution: B
Statement 1 is incorrect as India imports 30-40% of its refined copper due to insufficient domestic production.
Statement 2 is correct because copper’s antimicrobial and corrosion-resistant properties are well-known.
Statement 3 is incorrect since the Surda Mine is located in Jharkhand, not Rajasthan.
Statement 4 is correct as Malanjkhand Mine is the largest copper mine in India.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Gait Analysis: Statement-I: Gait analysis can aid in criminal investigations by analyzing unique walking patterns. Statement-II: It cannot evaluate the kinetic and kinematic aspects of movement. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct as gait analysis helps identify suspects by studying walking patterns. Statement-II is incorrect because gait analysis explicitly evaluates kinetic (forces) and kinematic (motions) data. About Gait Analysis: What it is:Gait analysis evaluates the way the body moves, primarily through walking or running, to detect abnormalities and understand movement dynamics. Types: Observational Gait Analysis:Visual assessment of walking patterns. Instrumented Gait Analysis:Advanced methods using sensors, video cameras, and infrared markers. How it works: Analyzes step length, stride length, cadence, and joint angles using advanced tools. Uses devices like infrared markers, sensors, and electrodes to evaluate kinetic and kinematic data. Detects abnormalities in gait phases: Stance Phase(60% of cycle) and Swing Phase (40% of cycle). Significance: Injury Prevention:Detects asymmetries before they result in injuries. Diagnosis and Treatment:Identifies skeletal misalignments, muscle dysfunction, and disease progression. Sports Performance:Optimizes athletic performance through personalized training plans. Criminal Investigations:Assists in identifying suspects based on unique walking patterns. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct as gait analysis helps identify suspects by studying walking patterns. Statement-II is incorrect because gait analysis explicitly evaluates kinetic (forces) and kinematic (motions) data. About Gait Analysis: What it is:Gait analysis evaluates the way the body moves, primarily through walking or running, to detect abnormalities and understand movement dynamics. Types: Observational Gait Analysis:Visual assessment of walking patterns. Instrumented Gait Analysis:Advanced methods using sensors, video cameras, and infrared markers. How it works: Analyzes step length, stride length, cadence, and joint angles using advanced tools. Uses devices like infrared markers, sensors, and electrodes to evaluate kinetic and kinematic data. Detects abnormalities in gait phases: Stance Phase(60% of cycle) and Swing Phase (40% of cycle). Significance: Injury Prevention:Detects asymmetries before they result in injuries. Diagnosis and Treatment:Identifies skeletal misalignments, muscle dysfunction, and disease progression. Sports Performance:Optimizes athletic performance through personalized training plans. Criminal Investigations:Assists in identifying suspects based on unique walking patterns.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Gait Analysis:
Statement-I: Gait analysis can aid in criminal investigations by analyzing unique walking patterns. Statement-II: It cannot evaluate the kinetic and kinematic aspects of movement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct as gait analysis helps identify suspects by studying walking patterns. Statement-II is incorrect because gait analysis explicitly evaluates kinetic (forces) and kinematic (motions) data.
About Gait Analysis:
• What it is:Gait analysis evaluates the way the body moves, primarily through walking or running, to detect abnormalities and understand movement dynamics.
Types:
• Observational Gait Analysis:Visual assessment of walking patterns.
• Instrumented Gait Analysis:Advanced methods using sensors, video cameras, and infrared markers.
How it works:
• Analyzes step length, stride length, cadence, and joint angles using advanced tools.
• Uses devices like infrared markers, sensors, and electrodes to evaluate kinetic and kinematic data.
• Detects abnormalities in gait phases: Stance Phase(60% of cycle) and Swing Phase (40% of cycle).
Significance:
• Injury Prevention:Detects asymmetries before they result in injuries.
• Diagnosis and Treatment:Identifies skeletal misalignments, muscle dysfunction, and disease progression.
• Sports Performance:Optimizes athletic performance through personalized training plans.
• Criminal Investigations:Assists in identifying suspects based on unique walking patterns.
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct as gait analysis helps identify suspects by studying walking patterns. Statement-II is incorrect because gait analysis explicitly evaluates kinetic (forces) and kinematic (motions) data.
About Gait Analysis:
• What it is:Gait analysis evaluates the way the body moves, primarily through walking or running, to detect abnormalities and understand movement dynamics.
Types:
• Observational Gait Analysis:Visual assessment of walking patterns.
• Instrumented Gait Analysis:Advanced methods using sensors, video cameras, and infrared markers.
How it works:
• Analyzes step length, stride length, cadence, and joint angles using advanced tools.
• Uses devices like infrared markers, sensors, and electrodes to evaluate kinetic and kinematic data.
• Detects abnormalities in gait phases: Stance Phase(60% of cycle) and Swing Phase (40% of cycle).
Significance:
• Injury Prevention:Detects asymmetries before they result in injuries.
• Diagnosis and Treatment:Identifies skeletal misalignments, muscle dysfunction, and disease progression.
• Sports Performance:Optimizes athletic performance through personalized training plans.
• Criminal Investigations:Assists in identifying suspects based on unique walking patterns.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling: The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches. The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule. The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling:
• The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches.
• The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule.
• The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
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