UPSC Editorials Quiz : 12 May 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which one of the following is the most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen over green hydrogen if widespread, economically viable reserves are confirmed? a) Higher energy density per unit mass. b) Complete absence of any environmental impact during extraction. c) Significantly lower production cost and direct availability as a primary energy source. d) Established global infrastructure for transportation and storage. Correct Solution: c) The most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen, should large and economically viable reserves be confirmed, lies in its significantly lower production cost and its nature as a primary energy source. Natural hydrogen is estimated to be producible at around $1/kg, which is considerably cheaper than green hydrogen (produced by electrolysis using renewable energy, costing $3-7/kg) or even grey/blue hydrogen (from fossil fuels). Being a primary energy source means it is extracted directly, avoiding the energy-intensive and costly manufacturing processes required for green or blue hydrogen. Incorrect Solution: c) The most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen, should large and economically viable reserves be confirmed, lies in its significantly lower production cost and its nature as a primary energy source. Natural hydrogen is estimated to be producible at around $1/kg, which is considerably cheaper than green hydrogen (produced by electrolysis using renewable energy, costing $3-7/kg) or even grey/blue hydrogen (from fossil fuels). Being a primary energy source means it is extracted directly, avoiding the energy-intensive and costly manufacturing processes required for green or blue hydrogen.
#### 1. Question
Which one of the following is the most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen over green hydrogen if widespread, economically viable reserves are confirmed?
• a) Higher energy density per unit mass.
• b) Complete absence of any environmental impact during extraction.
• c) Significantly lower production cost and direct availability as a primary energy source.
• d) Established global infrastructure for transportation and storage.
Solution: c)
• The most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen, should large and economically viable reserves be confirmed, lies in its significantly lower production cost and its nature as a primary energy source.
• Natural hydrogen is estimated to be producible at around $1/kg, which is considerably cheaper than green hydrogen (produced by electrolysis using renewable energy, costing $3-7/kg) or even grey/blue hydrogen (from fossil fuels).
Being a primary energy source means it is extracted directly, avoiding the energy-intensive and costly manufacturing processes required for green or blue hydrogen.
Solution: c)
• The most significant potential advantage of natural hydrogen, should large and economically viable reserves be confirmed, lies in its significantly lower production cost and its nature as a primary energy source.
• Natural hydrogen is estimated to be producible at around $1/kg, which is considerably cheaper than green hydrogen (produced by electrolysis using renewable energy, costing $3-7/kg) or even grey/blue hydrogen (from fossil fuels).
Being a primary energy source means it is extracted directly, avoiding the energy-intensive and costly manufacturing processes required for green or blue hydrogen.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Private Member’s Bills (PMBs) in the Indian Parliament: A PMB can only be introduced by a Member of Parliament who belongs to an opposition party. The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House in consultation with the Prime Minister. A PMB, if passed by both Houses and assented to by the President, becomes law in the same manner as a government bill. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill (PMB) can be introduced by any Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a Minister. This includes MPs from the ruling party/coalition as well as from opposition parties. The defining characteristic is not party affiliation but whether the MP holds a ministerial position. Statement 2 is incorrect. The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the concerned House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) based on constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in that House. There is no procedural requirement for consultation with the Prime Minister for determining the admissibility of a PMB. Statement 3 is correct. The legislative procedure for a PMB is largely similar to that of a government bill. It must pass through the same stages: first reading, second reading (including general discussion, committee stage, and consideration stage), and third reading in both Houses of Parliament. If a PMB is successfully passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and subsequently receives the President’s assent, it becomes an Act of Parliament. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill (PMB) can be introduced by any Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a Minister. This includes MPs from the ruling party/coalition as well as from opposition parties. The defining characteristic is not party affiliation but whether the MP holds a ministerial position. Statement 2 is incorrect. The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the concerned House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) based on constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in that House. There is no procedural requirement for consultation with the Prime Minister for determining the admissibility of a PMB. Statement 3 is correct. The legislative procedure for a PMB is largely similar to that of a government bill. It must pass through the same stages: first reading, second reading (including general discussion, committee stage, and consideration stage), and third reading in both Houses of Parliament. If a PMB is successfully passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and subsequently receives the President’s assent, it becomes an Act of Parliament.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Private Member’s Bills (PMBs) in the Indian Parliament:
• A PMB can only be introduced by a Member of Parliament who belongs to an opposition party.
• The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House in consultation with the Prime Minister.
• A PMB, if passed by both Houses and assented to by the President, becomes law in the same manner as a government bill.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill (PMB) can be introduced by any Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a Minister. This includes MPs from the ruling party/coalition as well as from opposition parties. The defining characteristic is not party affiliation but whether the MP holds a ministerial position.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the concerned House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) based on constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in that House. There is no procedural requirement for consultation with the Prime Minister for determining the admissibility of a PMB.
Statement 3 is correct. The legislative procedure for a PMB is largely similar to that of a government bill. It must pass through the same stages: first reading, second reading (including general discussion, committee stage, and consideration stage), and third reading in both Houses of Parliament. If a PMB is successfully passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and subsequently receives the President’s assent, it becomes an Act of Parliament.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. A Private Member’s Bill (PMB) can be introduced by any Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a Minister. This includes MPs from the ruling party/coalition as well as from opposition parties. The defining characteristic is not party affiliation but whether the MP holds a ministerial position.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The admissibility of a PMB is decided by the Presiding Officer of the concerned House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) based on constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in that House. There is no procedural requirement for consultation with the Prime Minister for determining the admissibility of a PMB.
Statement 3 is correct. The legislative procedure for a PMB is largely similar to that of a government bill. It must pass through the same stages: first reading, second reading (including general discussion, committee stage, and consideration stage), and third reading in both Houses of Parliament. If a PMB is successfully passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and subsequently receives the President’s assent, it becomes an Act of Parliament.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Operation Kagar: It is exclusively a military operation led by the Indian Army to counter insurgency in the Northeast region. The operation focuses solely on security action, without incorporating development or technological surveillance components. One of the core zones of Operation Kagar is the West Singhbhum district in Jharkhand. The operation was launched in response to increased cross-border infiltration in late 2023. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Kagar is an anti-Naxal military campaign, not primarily focused on the Northeast region, and it involves personnel from Central Armed Police Forces like CRPF, its elite CoBRA units, District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and state police forces, not exclusively the Indian Army. It is launched by the Union Government to dismantle Left-Wing Extremism (LWE). Statement 2 is incorrect. Operation Kagar adopts a multi-pronged strategy that integrates security action, advanced surveillance technology (like drones, AI, satellite imagery), and development outreach. Statement 3 is correct. The core zones identified for Operation Kagar include Bastar in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli in Maharashtra, and West Singhbhum in Jharkhand. These areas are known to be significantly affected by LWE activities. Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Kagar was launched in January 2024 by the Union Government with the specific objective of dismantling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) networks. It is not primarily a response to cross-border infiltration but an internal security operation targeting Naxal strongholds. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Kagar is an anti-Naxal military campaign, not primarily focused on the Northeast region, and it involves personnel from Central Armed Police Forces like CRPF, its elite CoBRA units, District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and state police forces, not exclusively the Indian Army. It is launched by the Union Government to dismantle Left-Wing Extremism (LWE). Statement 2 is incorrect. Operation Kagar adopts a multi-pronged strategy that integrates security action, advanced surveillance technology (like drones, AI, satellite imagery), and development outreach. Statement 3 is correct. The core zones identified for Operation Kagar include Bastar in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli in Maharashtra, and West Singhbhum in Jharkhand. These areas are known to be significantly affected by LWE activities. Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Kagar was launched in January 2024 by the Union Government with the specific objective of dismantling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) networks. It is not primarily a response to cross-border infiltration but an internal security operation targeting Naxal strongholds.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Operation Kagar:
• It is exclusively a military operation led by the Indian Army to counter insurgency in the Northeast region.
• The operation focuses solely on security action, without incorporating development or technological surveillance components.
• One of the core zones of Operation Kagar is the West Singhbhum district in Jharkhand.
• The operation was launched in response to increased cross-border infiltration in late 2023.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Kagar is an anti-Naxal military campaign, not primarily focused on the Northeast region, and it involves personnel from Central Armed Police Forces like CRPF, its elite CoBRA units, District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and state police forces, not exclusively the Indian Army. It is launched by the Union Government to dismantle Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Operation Kagar adopts a multi-pronged strategy that integrates security action, advanced surveillance technology (like drones, AI, satellite imagery), and development outreach.
Statement 3 is correct. The core zones identified for Operation Kagar include Bastar in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli in Maharashtra, and West Singhbhum in Jharkhand. These areas are known to be significantly affected by LWE activities.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Kagar was launched in January 2024 by the Union Government with the specific objective of dismantling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) networks. It is not primarily a response to cross-border infiltration but an internal security operation targeting Naxal strongholds.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Kagar is an anti-Naxal military campaign, not primarily focused on the Northeast region, and it involves personnel from Central Armed Police Forces like CRPF, its elite CoBRA units, District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and state police forces, not exclusively the Indian Army. It is launched by the Union Government to dismantle Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Operation Kagar adopts a multi-pronged strategy that integrates security action, advanced surveillance technology (like drones, AI, satellite imagery), and development outreach.
Statement 3 is correct. The core zones identified for Operation Kagar include Bastar in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli in Maharashtra, and West Singhbhum in Jharkhand. These areas are known to be significantly affected by LWE activities.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Kagar was launched in January 2024 by the Union Government with the specific objective of dismantling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) networks. It is not primarily a response to cross-border infiltration but an internal security operation targeting Naxal strongholds.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) system for sugarcane in India: If a State Government announces a State Advisory Price (SAP) for sugarcane that is lower than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are legally obligated to pay the SAP. Sugar mills are required to make payment to farmers against their sugarcane supply within 30 days of delivery, failing which they are liable to pay interest. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Some state governments, particularly in major sugarcane-producing states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana, announce a State Advisory Price (SAP). If the SAP announced by a state government is higher than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are generally required to pay the SAP, or the higher of the two. They cannot pay an SAP that is lower than the FRP if the FRP is the legally mandated minimum floor price. The FRP acts as a national minimum. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, sugar mills are legally bound to pay farmers the FRP within 14 days of the delivery of sugarcane. If mills delay payments beyond this 14-day period, they are liable to pay interest at 15% per annum on the amount due. The period is 14 days, not 30 days. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Some state governments, particularly in major sugarcane-producing states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana, announce a State Advisory Price (SAP). If the SAP announced by a state government is higher than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are generally required to pay the SAP, or the higher of the two. They cannot pay an SAP that is lower than the FRP if the FRP is the legally mandated minimum floor price. The FRP acts as a national minimum. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, sugar mills are legally bound to pay farmers the FRP within 14 days of the delivery of sugarcane. If mills delay payments beyond this 14-day period, they are liable to pay interest at 15% per annum on the amount due. The period is 14 days, not 30 days.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) system for sugarcane in India:
• If a State Government announces a State Advisory Price (SAP) for sugarcane that is lower than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are legally obligated to pay the SAP.
• Sugar mills are required to make payment to farmers against their sugarcane supply within 30 days of delivery, failing which they are liable to pay interest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Some state governments, particularly in major sugarcane-producing states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana, announce a State Advisory Price (SAP). If the SAP announced by a state government is higher than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are generally required to pay the SAP, or the higher of the two. They cannot pay an SAP that is lower than the FRP if the FRP is the legally mandated minimum floor price. The FRP acts as a national minimum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, sugar mills are legally bound to pay farmers the FRP within 14 days of the delivery of sugarcane. If mills delay payments beyond this 14-day period, they are liable to pay interest at 15% per annum on the amount due. The period is 14 days, not 30 days.
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Some state governments, particularly in major sugarcane-producing states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana, announce a State Advisory Price (SAP). If the SAP announced by a state government is higher than the centrally announced FRP, sugar mills in that state are generally required to pay the SAP, or the higher of the two. They cannot pay an SAP that is lower than the FRP if the FRP is the legally mandated minimum floor price. The FRP acts as a national minimum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, sugar mills are legally bound to pay farmers the FRP within 14 days of the delivery of sugarcane. If mills delay payments beyond this 14-day period, they are liable to pay interest at 15% per annum on the amount due. The period is 14 days, not 30 days.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” compared to routine cybercrime investigations conducted by state police forces is its: a) Exclusive reliance on human intelligence gathered by CBI informants. b) Focus on organized cybercrimes against minors with international linkages, leveraging CBI's capacity for cross-border coordination. c) Mandate to investigate only those cybercrimes that originate from foreign soil. d) Authority to conduct investigations without requiring prior sanction from state governments. Correct Solution: b) The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” lies in its specific focus on organized online child sexual exploitation networks that have international digital footprints, and the CBI’s specialized capability to coordinate with international law enforcement agencies. While state police forces handle a wide range of cybercrimes, Operation Hawk, spearheaded by the CBI’s International Operations Division, is tailored to tackle complex cases involving offenders and victims across borders. This involves working with agencies like Interpol, the FBI, and local cybersecurity units in other countries to track perpetrators, gather digital evidence from international servers, and ensure a coordinated response to foreign complaints involving Indian citizens. Incorrect Solution: b) The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” lies in its specific focus on organized online child sexual exploitation networks that have international digital footprints, and the CBI’s specialized capability to coordinate with international law enforcement agencies. While state police forces handle a wide range of cybercrimes, Operation Hawk, spearheaded by the CBI’s International Operations Division, is tailored to tackle complex cases involving offenders and victims across borders. This involves working with agencies like Interpol, the FBI, and local cybersecurity units in other countries to track perpetrators, gather digital evidence from international servers, and ensure a coordinated response to foreign complaints involving Indian citizens.
#### 5. Question
The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” compared to routine cybercrime investigations conducted by state police forces is its:
• a) Exclusive reliance on human intelligence gathered by CBI informants.
• b) Focus on organized cybercrimes against minors with international linkages, leveraging CBI's capacity for cross-border coordination.
• c) Mandate to investigate only those cybercrimes that originate from foreign soil.
• d) Authority to conduct investigations without requiring prior sanction from state governments.
Solution: b)
• The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” lies in its specific focus on organized online child sexual exploitation networks that have international digital footprints, and the CBI’s specialized capability to coordinate with international law enforcement agencies.
• While state police forces handle a wide range of cybercrimes, Operation Hawk, spearheaded by the CBI’s International Operations Division, is tailored to tackle complex cases involving offenders and victims across borders.
This involves working with agencies like Interpol, the FBI, and local cybersecurity units in other countries to track perpetrators, gather digital evidence from international servers, and ensure a coordinated response to foreign complaints involving Indian citizens.
Solution: b)
• The primary distinction of “Operation Hawk” lies in its specific focus on organized online child sexual exploitation networks that have international digital footprints, and the CBI’s specialized capability to coordinate with international law enforcement agencies.
• While state police forces handle a wide range of cybercrimes, Operation Hawk, spearheaded by the CBI’s International Operations Division, is tailored to tackle complex cases involving offenders and victims across borders.
This involves working with agencies like Interpol, the FBI, and local cybersecurity units in other countries to track perpetrators, gather digital evidence from international servers, and ensure a coordinated response to foreign complaints involving Indian citizens.
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