UPSC Editorials Quiz : 12 February 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Under Article 94 of the Constitution of India, a resolution for the removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker can be moved only after giving a notice of at least: (a) 7 days (b) 10 days (c) 14 days (d) 21 days Correct Solution: C The Constitution mandates a specific procedural safeguard for the removal of the Speaker. According to Article 94, no resolution for the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall be moved unless at least 14 days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. This is a fundamental procedural requirement to ensure the stability of the office. Source Incorrect Solution: C The Constitution mandates a specific procedural safeguard for the removal of the Speaker. According to Article 94, no resolution for the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall be moved unless at least 14 days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. This is a fundamental procedural requirement to ensure the stability of the office. Source

#### 1. Question

Under Article 94 of the Constitution of India, a resolution for the removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker can be moved only after giving a notice of at least:

• (a) 7 days

• (b) 10 days

• (c) 14 days

• (d) 21 days

Solution: C

The Constitution mandates a specific procedural safeguard for the removal of the Speaker. According to Article 94, no resolution for the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall be moved unless at least 14 days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. This is a fundamental procedural requirement to ensure the stability of the office.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Regarding the sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for reservation purposes, consider the following statements: The Supreme Court has held that sub-classification does not violate the principle of equality because the Constitution provides for substantive equality rather than absolute formal equality. The authority to notify the list of Scheduled Castes is constitutionally reserved for the President, and States cannot tinker with this list by excluding any caste entirely. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has upheld that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for reservation purposes does not violate the equality principle. The Court reasoned that the Constitution embodies substantive equality rather than mere formal equality. Articles 14, 15, and 16 permit reasonable classification to achieve real and effective equality. In recent judgments, the Court observed that treating all SCs or STs as a homogeneous group may perpetuate internal inequities because some communities within these categories remain more backward than others. Therefore, sub-classification aimed at equitable distribution of reservation benefits is constitutionally permissible if backed by empirical data and rational criteria. Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 341 and Article 342, the power to notify the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is vested in the President, subject to parliamentary law. States do not have the authority to exclude or include any caste in the notified list. They may, however, make sub-classifications for distribution of benefits, but they cannot “tinker” with the Presidential list by removing a caste altogether. Any alteration of the list requires parliamentary legislation. Source Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has upheld that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for reservation purposes does not violate the equality principle. The Court reasoned that the Constitution embodies substantive equality rather than mere formal equality. Articles 14, 15, and 16 permit reasonable classification to achieve real and effective equality. In recent judgments, the Court observed that treating all SCs or STs as a homogeneous group may perpetuate internal inequities because some communities within these categories remain more backward than others. Therefore, sub-classification aimed at equitable distribution of reservation benefits is constitutionally permissible if backed by empirical data and rational criteria. Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 341 and Article 342, the power to notify the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is vested in the President, subject to parliamentary law. States do not have the authority to exclude or include any caste in the notified list. They may, however, make sub-classifications for distribution of benefits, but they cannot “tinker” with the Presidential list by removing a caste altogether. Any alteration of the list requires parliamentary legislation. Source

#### 2. Question

Regarding the sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for reservation purposes, consider the following statements:

• The Supreme Court has held that sub-classification does not violate the principle of equality because the Constitution provides for substantive equality rather than absolute formal equality.

• The authority to notify the list of Scheduled Castes is constitutionally reserved for the President, and States cannot tinker with this list by excluding any caste entirely.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has upheld that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for reservation purposes does not violate the equality principle. The Court reasoned that the Constitution embodies substantive equality rather than mere formal equality. Articles 14, 15, and 16 permit reasonable classification to achieve real and effective equality. In recent judgments, the Court observed that treating all SCs or STs as a homogeneous group may perpetuate internal inequities because some communities within these categories remain more backward than others. Therefore, sub-classification aimed at equitable distribution of reservation benefits is constitutionally permissible if backed by empirical data and rational criteria.

• Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 341 and Article 342, the power to notify the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is vested in the President, subject to parliamentary law. States do not have the authority to exclude or include any caste in the notified list. They may, however, make sub-classifications for distribution of benefits, but they cannot “tinker” with the Presidential list by removing a caste altogether. Any alteration of the list requires parliamentary legislation.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the ‘Baltic Sea’ ecosystem, consider the following statements: It is a semi-enclosed sea with high salinity levels compared to the open Atlantic Ocean. The sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, and Poland, among others. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The Baltic Sea is known for its low salinity (brackish water) due to high freshwater inflow from rivers and limited exchange with the North Sea. It is not high salinity. Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic Sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, Poland, Germany, Denmark, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The Baltic Sea is known for its low salinity (brackish water) due to high freshwater inflow from rivers and limited exchange with the North Sea. It is not high salinity. Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic Sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, Poland, Germany, Denmark, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the ‘Baltic Sea’ ecosystem, consider the following statements:

• It is a semi-enclosed sea with high salinity levels compared to the open Atlantic Ocean.

• The sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, and Poland, among others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Baltic Sea is known for its low salinity (brackish water) due to high freshwater inflow from rivers and limited exchange with the North Sea. It is not high salinity.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic Sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, Poland, Germany, Denmark, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic Sea is bordered by Finland, Sweden, Poland, Germany, Denmark, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘BioE3 Policy’ approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025: Statement I: The policy aims to foster ‘High Performance Biomanufacturing’ to facilitate the transition from a fossil fuel-based economy to a regenerative bioeconomy. Statement II: The policy mandates the establishment of ‘Mulaankur Bio-Enablers’ to function exclusively as academic research centers for fundamental biological studies. Statement III: ‘Futuristic marine and space biomanufacturing’ is identified as one of the strategic thematic sectors under the policy framework. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct and explain the core objective of the policy. (b) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct, but Statement II is incorrect. (c) Only Statement I is correct and Statement III acts as a supporting argument. (d) All three Statements are correct. Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The policy seeks to enable a transition from a fossil fuel-dependent industrial system toward a regenerative bioeconomy. High-performance biomanufacturing includes advanced bio-based production systems using synthetic biology, precision fermentation, bio-based chemicals, and sustainable biomaterials. The broader aim is to enhance economic growth while reducing environmental footprint and promoting circular economy principles. Statement II is incorrect. The proposed ‘Mulaankur Bio-Enablers’ are not meant to function exclusively as academic research centres for fundamental biological studies. Instead, they are envisaged as enabling platforms or innovation ecosystems that support translational research, industry linkages, entrepreneurship, scaling of technologies, and commercialization. Their objective is application-oriented development rather than purely theoretical or academic research. Statement III is correct. The policy identifies several strategic thematic sectors, including futuristic marine and space biomanufacturing, reflecting India’s ambition to expand biotechnology into emerging frontiers such as blue economy applications and space-based bio-production systems. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The policy seeks to enable a transition from a fossil fuel-dependent industrial system toward a regenerative bioeconomy. High-performance biomanufacturing includes advanced bio-based production systems using synthetic biology, precision fermentation, bio-based chemicals, and sustainable biomaterials. The broader aim is to enhance economic growth while reducing environmental footprint and promoting circular economy principles. Statement II is incorrect. The proposed ‘Mulaankur Bio-Enablers’ are not meant to function exclusively as academic research centres for fundamental biological studies. Instead, they are envisaged as enabling platforms or innovation ecosystems that support translational research, industry linkages, entrepreneurship, scaling of technologies, and commercialization. Their objective is application-oriented development rather than purely theoretical or academic research. Statement III is correct. The policy identifies several strategic thematic sectors, including futuristic marine and space biomanufacturing, reflecting India’s ambition to expand biotechnology into emerging frontiers such as blue economy applications and space-based bio-production systems.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘BioE3 Policy’ approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025:

Statement I: The policy aims to foster ‘High Performance Biomanufacturing’ to facilitate the transition from a fossil fuel-based economy to a regenerative bioeconomy.

Statement II: The policy mandates the establishment of ‘Mulaankur Bio-Enablers’ to function exclusively as academic research centers for fundamental biological studies.

Statement III: ‘Futuristic marine and space biomanufacturing’ is identified as one of the strategic thematic sectors under the policy framework.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct and explain the core objective of the policy.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

• (c) Only Statement I is correct and Statement III acts as a supporting argument.

• (d) All three Statements are correct.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The policy seeks to enable a transition from a fossil fuel-dependent industrial system toward a regenerative bioeconomy. High-performance biomanufacturing includes advanced bio-based production systems using synthetic biology, precision fermentation, bio-based chemicals, and sustainable biomaterials. The broader aim is to enhance economic growth while reducing environmental footprint and promoting circular economy principles.

• Statement II is incorrect. The proposed ‘Mulaankur Bio-Enablers’ are not meant to function exclusively as academic research centres for fundamental biological studies. Instead, they are envisaged as enabling platforms or innovation ecosystems that support translational research, industry linkages, entrepreneurship, scaling of technologies, and commercialization. Their objective is application-oriented development rather than purely theoretical or academic research.

Statement III is correct. The policy identifies several strategic thematic sectors, including futuristic marine and space biomanufacturing, reflecting India’s ambition to expand biotechnology into emerging frontiers such as blue economy applications and space-based bio-production systems.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question The P-8I Poseidon aircraft, frequently mentioned in the context of Indian Navy’s modernization and recent India-US trade talks, is primarily used for: (a) High-altitude air-to-air combat (b) Tactical troop transport (c) Long-range maritime patrol and anti-submarine warfare (d) Short-range border surveillance Correct Solution: C The P-8I Poseidon is a multi-role aircraft manufactured by the US firm Boeing. Its primary operational roles include Long-range Maritime Reconnaissance (LRMR) and Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW). The Indian Navy currently operates 12 of these aircraft and is seeking to procure six more to monitor adversary movements in the Indian Ocean. The procurement of these “submarine hunters” is considered a strategic factor that helped achieve a breakthrough in recent trade negotiations. Source Incorrect Solution: C The P-8I Poseidon is a multi-role aircraft manufactured by the US firm Boeing. Its primary operational roles include Long-range Maritime Reconnaissance (LRMR) and Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW). The Indian Navy currently operates 12 of these aircraft and is seeking to procure six more to monitor adversary movements in the Indian Ocean. The procurement of these “submarine hunters” is considered a strategic factor that helped achieve a breakthrough in recent trade negotiations. Source

#### 5. Question

The P-8I Poseidon aircraft, frequently mentioned in the context of Indian Navy’s modernization and recent India-US trade talks, is primarily used for:

• (a) High-altitude air-to-air combat

• (b) Tactical troop transport

• (c) Long-range maritime patrol and anti-submarine warfare

• (d) Short-range border surveillance

Solution: C

The P-8I Poseidon is a multi-role aircraft manufactured by the US firm Boeing. Its primary operational roles include Long-range Maritime Reconnaissance (LRMR) and Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW). The Indian Navy currently operates 12 of these aircraft and is seeking to procure six more to monitor adversary movements in the Indian Ocean. The procurement of these “submarine hunters” is considered a strategic factor that helped achieve a breakthrough in recent trade negotiations.

Solution: C

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