UPSC Editorials Quiz : 11 October 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about Landslides in India: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has identified nearly 25% of India’s land area as prone to landslides. The Northeast region, despite its smaller geographical area, accounts for a significant portion of the total landslide hazard zone. Both intense rainfall and seismic activity are major triggers for landslides in the Himalayan region. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), nearly 13% of India’s land area (approximately 0.42 million sq. km), not 25%, is susceptible to landslides. This highlights the significant, yet specific, geographical concentration of the hazard. Statement 2 is correct. The Northeast region accounts for 42% of the total landslide hazard zone in India. This disproportionately high vulnerability is due to a combination of factors, including its fragile geology, steep terrains, heavy monsoon precipitation, and often unregulated developmental activities. Statement 3 is correct. The Himalayan region, including areas like Darjeeling, is characterized by young, unconsolidated rock formations. Intense monsoon rainfall saturates the soil, reducing its cohesion, while the region’s high seismic vulnerability due to tectonic activity further destabilizes slopes, making both phenomena critical triggers for landslides. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), nearly 13% of India’s land area (approximately 0.42 million sq. km), not 25%, is susceptible to landslides. This highlights the significant, yet specific, geographical concentration of the hazard. Statement 2 is correct. The Northeast region accounts for 42% of the total landslide hazard zone in India. This disproportionately high vulnerability is due to a combination of factors, including its fragile geology, steep terrains, heavy monsoon precipitation, and often unregulated developmental activities. Statement 3 is correct. The Himalayan region, including areas like Darjeeling, is characterized by young, unconsolidated rock formations. Intense monsoon rainfall saturates the soil, reducing its cohesion, while the region’s high seismic vulnerability due to tectonic activity further destabilizes slopes, making both phenomena critical triggers for landslides.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Landslides in India:

• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has identified nearly 25% of India’s land area as prone to landslides.

• The Northeast region, despite its smaller geographical area, accounts for a significant portion of the total landslide hazard zone.

• Both intense rainfall and seismic activity are major triggers for landslides in the Himalayan region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), nearly 13% of India’s land area (approximately 0.42 million sq. km), not 25%, is susceptible to landslides. This highlights the significant, yet specific, geographical concentration of the hazard.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Northeast region accounts for 42% of the total landslide hazard zone in India. This disproportionately high vulnerability is due to a combination of factors, including its fragile geology, steep terrains, heavy monsoon precipitation, and often unregulated developmental activities.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Himalayan region, including areas like Darjeeling, is characterized by young, unconsolidated rock formations. Intense monsoon rainfall saturates the soil, reducing its cohesion, while the region’s high seismic vulnerability due to tectonic activity further destabilizes slopes, making both phenomena critical triggers for landslides.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for passive euthanasia in India: Statement I: The Supreme Court of India, in its judicial pronouncements, has affirmed that the Right to Die with Dignity is a fundamental right. Statement II: Th affirmation mentioned in Statement I is rooted in the interpretation that the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to a dignified life until its natural end, and thus also encompasses the right to a dignified death. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the precise legal reasoning for Statement-I. The Supreme Court of India, particularly in the landmark Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) case, explicitly held that the Right to Die with Dignity is an intrinsic and inseparable part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Court’s reasoning was that the right to live with dignity also implies the right to a dignified process of dying, especially for individuals in a persistent vegetative state or with terminal illnesses with no hope of recovery. Therefore, the expansion of Article 21 to include the right to a dignified death is the direct constitutional foundation upon which the legality of passive euthanasia and advance medical directives rests. Statement-II correctly explains this jurisprudential evolution. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the precise legal reasoning for Statement-I. The Supreme Court of India, particularly in the landmark Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) case, explicitly held that the Right to Die with Dignity is an intrinsic and inseparable part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Court’s reasoning was that the right to live with dignity also implies the right to a dignified process of dying, especially for individuals in a persistent vegetative state or with terminal illnesses with no hope of recovery. Therefore, the expansion of Article 21 to include the right to a dignified death is the direct constitutional foundation upon which the legality of passive euthanasia and advance medical directives rests. Statement-II correctly explains this jurisprudential evolution.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for passive euthanasia in India:

Statement I: The Supreme Court of India, in its judicial pronouncements, has affirmed that the Right to Die with Dignity is a fundamental right.

Statement II: Th affirmation mentioned in Statement I is rooted in the interpretation that the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to a dignified life until its natural end, and thus also encompasses the right to a dignified death.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the precise legal reasoning for Statement-I.

• The Supreme Court of India, particularly in the landmark Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) case, explicitly held that the Right to Die with Dignity is an intrinsic and inseparable part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.

• The Court’s reasoning was that the right to live with dignity also implies the right to a dignified process of dying, especially for individuals in a persistent vegetative state or with terminal illnesses with no hope of recovery.

• Therefore, the expansion of Article 21 to include the right to a dignified death is the direct constitutional foundation upon which the legality of passive euthanasia and advance medical directives rests. Statement-II correctly explains this jurisprudential evolution.

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the precise legal reasoning for Statement-I.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the significance of ‘Soilification Technology’: It can help in controlling desertification by restoring soil fertility in arid regions. It can enhance food security by enabling the cultivation of staple crops in previously barren areas. It is a water-intensive technology that increases the dependence on groundwater resources. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. By converting barren desert land into cultivable farmland, soilification technology can play a crucial role in controlling desertification. It can help prevent the expansion of the Thar desert towards the National Capital Region (NCR) by restoring soil fertility and creating a green cover. Statement 2 is correct. The successful cultivation of staple crops like wheat and millet in arid belts using this technology demonstrates its potential to enhance food security. By making previously unproductive land cultivable, it can increase agricultural output and provide a source of food and livelihood in water-scarce regions. Statement 3 is incorrect. Soilification technology is water-efficient, not water-intensive. It reduced irrigation cycles (3–4 cycles compared to 5–6 in normal farming) and creates a binding effect in the soil that improves water retention. This minimizes the use of groundwater, which is a critical advantage in arid regions like Rajasthan. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. By converting barren desert land into cultivable farmland, soilification technology can play a crucial role in controlling desertification. It can help prevent the expansion of the Thar desert towards the National Capital Region (NCR) by restoring soil fertility and creating a green cover. Statement 2 is correct. The successful cultivation of staple crops like wheat and millet in arid belts using this technology demonstrates its potential to enhance food security. By making previously unproductive land cultivable, it can increase agricultural output and provide a source of food and livelihood in water-scarce regions. Statement 3 is incorrect. Soilification technology is water-efficient, not water-intensive. It reduced irrigation cycles (3–4 cycles compared to 5–6 in normal farming) and creates a binding effect in the soil that improves water retention. This minimizes the use of groundwater, which is a critical advantage in arid regions like Rajasthan.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of ‘Soilification Technology’:

• It can help in controlling desertification by restoring soil fertility in arid regions.

• It can enhance food security by enabling the cultivation of staple crops in previously barren areas.

• It is a water-intensive technology that increases the dependence on groundwater resources.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. By converting barren desert land into cultivable farmland, soilification technology can play a crucial role in controlling desertification. It can help prevent the expansion of the Thar desert towards the National Capital Region (NCR) by restoring soil fertility and creating a green cover.

• Statement 2 is correct. The successful cultivation of staple crops like wheat and millet in arid belts using this technology demonstrates its potential to enhance food security. By making previously unproductive land cultivable, it can increase agricultural output and provide a source of food and livelihood in water-scarce regions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Soilification technology is water-efficient, not water-intensive. It reduced irrigation cycles (3–4 cycles compared to 5–6 in normal farming) and creates a binding effect in the soil that improves water retention. This minimizes the use of groundwater, which is a critical advantage in arid regions like Rajasthan.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following special powers are granted to the armed forces under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) in a “disturbed area”? To fire upon or use force, even to the extent of causing death, against persons violating prohibitory orders. To arrest without a warrant on suspicion of cognizable offences. To search premises without a warrant. To conduct trials of arrested individuals in military courts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The AFSPA empowers the armed forces to fire upon or use force, even to the point of causing death, against any person who is acting in contravention of any law or order for the time being in force in the disturbed area prohibiting the assembly of five or more persons or the carrying of weapons. Statement 2 is correct. Armed forces personnel have the power to arrest without a warrant any person who has committed a cognizable offence or against whom a reasonable suspicion exists that they have committed or are about to commit a cognizable offence. Statement 3 is correct. The Act allows armed forces personnel to enter and search any premises without a warrant to make an arrest or to recover any person believed to be wrongfully restrained or confined, or any arms, ammunition or explosive substances. Statement 4 is incorrect. The AFSPA does not grant the power to conduct trials. The Act mandates that any person arrested must be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station at the earliest opportunity, along with a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest. The trial is then conducted through the civilian judicial system. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The AFSPA empowers the armed forces to fire upon or use force, even to the point of causing death, against any person who is acting in contravention of any law or order for the time being in force in the disturbed area prohibiting the assembly of five or more persons or the carrying of weapons. Statement 2 is correct. Armed forces personnel have the power to arrest without a warrant any person who has committed a cognizable offence or against whom a reasonable suspicion exists that they have committed or are about to commit a cognizable offence. Statement 3 is correct. The Act allows armed forces personnel to enter and search any premises without a warrant to make an arrest or to recover any person believed to be wrongfully restrained or confined, or any arms, ammunition or explosive substances. Statement 4 is incorrect. The AFSPA does not grant the power to conduct trials. The Act mandates that any person arrested must be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station at the earliest opportunity, along with a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest. The trial is then conducted through the civilian judicial system.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following special powers are granted to the armed forces under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) in a “disturbed area”?

• To fire upon or use force, even to the extent of causing death, against persons violating prohibitory orders.

• To arrest without a warrant on suspicion of cognizable offences.

• To search premises without a warrant.

• To conduct trials of arrested individuals in military courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The AFSPA empowers the armed forces to fire upon or use force, even to the point of causing death, against any person who is acting in contravention of any law or order for the time being in force in the disturbed area prohibiting the assembly of five or more persons or the carrying of weapons.

• Statement 2 is correct. Armed forces personnel have the power to arrest without a warrant any person who has committed a cognizable offence or against whom a reasonable suspicion exists that they have committed or are about to commit a cognizable offence.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Act allows armed forces personnel to enter and search any premises without a warrant to make an arrest or to recover any person believed to be wrongfully restrained or confined, or any arms, ammunition or explosive substances.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The AFSPA does not grant the power to conduct trials. The Act mandates that any person arrested must be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station at the earliest opportunity, along with a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest. The trial is then conducted through the civilian judicial system.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the objectives and strategies of India’s early Five-Year Plans: The First Five-Year Plan was fundamentally based on the Mahalanobis model, which prioritized the development of a strong heavy industrial base. The Second Five-Year Plan shifted focus to agricultural development, aiming to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and correct the industrial bias of the first plan. The concept of “take-off stage” of the economy was associated with the Third Five-Year Plan, which aimed to make India a ‘self-reliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on the Harrod-Domar model, which emphasized the role of savings and investment in economic growth. Its main focus was on the development of the agricultural sector to address the food crisis and inflation in the post-partition era. It prioritized investments in irrigation, energy, and transport infrastructure to support agriculture. The Mahalanobis model was the cornerstone of the Second Plan, not the first. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), guided by the Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis model, did the opposite of what the statement claims. It made a decisive shift towards rapid industrialization, with a strong emphasis on the development of heavy and capital goods industries in the public sector. The belief was that this strategy would build a strong foundation for long-term economic growth, even if it meant a lower priority for agriculture in the short run. Statement 3 is correct. The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) was formulated with the ambitious belief that the Indian economy had reached a “take-off stage,” a concept popularized by economist W.W. Rostow. The plan’s primary objectives were to achieve self-reliance and establish a self-generating economy. It aimed for a balanced approach, giving importance to both agriculture (to support exports and industry) and industry, but was severely hampered by unforeseen events like the Sino-Indian War (1962) and the Indo-Pakistani War (1965), along with a severe drought. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on the Harrod-Domar model, which emphasized the role of savings and investment in economic growth. Its main focus was on the development of the agricultural sector to address the food crisis and inflation in the post-partition era. It prioritized investments in irrigation, energy, and transport infrastructure to support agriculture. The Mahalanobis model was the cornerstone of the Second Plan, not the first. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), guided by the Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis model, did the opposite of what the statement claims. It made a decisive shift towards rapid industrialization, with a strong emphasis on the development of heavy and capital goods industries in the public sector. The belief was that this strategy would build a strong foundation for long-term economic growth, even if it meant a lower priority for agriculture in the short run. Statement 3 is correct. The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) was formulated with the ambitious belief that the Indian economy had reached a “take-off stage,” a concept popularized by economist W.W. Rostow. The plan’s primary objectives were to achieve self-reliance and establish a self-generating economy. It aimed for a balanced approach, giving importance to both agriculture (to support exports and industry) and industry, but was severely hampered by unforeseen events like the Sino-Indian War (1962) and the Indo-Pakistani War (1965), along with a severe drought.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives and strategies of India’s early Five-Year Plans:

• The First Five-Year Plan was fundamentally based on the Mahalanobis model, which prioritized the development of a strong heavy industrial base.

• The Second Five-Year Plan shifted focus to agricultural development, aiming to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and correct the industrial bias of the first plan.

• The concept of “take-off stage” of the economy was associated with the Third Five-Year Plan, which aimed to make India a ‘self-reliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on the Harrod-Domar model, which emphasized the role of savings and investment in economic growth. Its main focus was on the development of the agricultural sector to address the food crisis and inflation in the post-partition era. It prioritized investments in irrigation, energy, and transport infrastructure to support agriculture. The Mahalanobis model was the cornerstone of the Second Plan, not the first.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), guided by the Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis model, did the opposite of what the statement claims. It made a decisive shift towards rapid industrialization, with a strong emphasis on the development of heavy and capital goods industries in the public sector. The belief was that this strategy would build a strong foundation for long-term economic growth, even if it meant a lower priority for agriculture in the short run.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) was formulated with the ambitious belief that the Indian economy had reached a “take-off stage,” a concept popularized by economist W.W. Rostow. The plan’s primary objectives were to achieve self-reliance and establish a self-generating economy. It aimed for a balanced approach, giving importance to both agriculture (to support exports and industry) and industry, but was severely hampered by unforeseen events like the Sino-Indian War (1962) and the Indo-Pakistani War (1965), along with a severe drought.

Solution: A

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