UPSC Editorials Quiz : 11 November 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) recently maintained the policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’. Statement II: A ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ stance implies that the central bank is focused on withdrawing the liquidity and monetary support that was extended during a period of economic stress, and is prepared to increase interest rates to manage inflation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Recent MPC meetings, as reported in October 2025, have shown that the committee voted to maintain the repo rate and continue with the policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’. Statement-II is correct. An “accommodative” stance is when the central bank is willing to cut interest rates and inject liquidity to support growth. “Withdrawal of accommodation” is the opposite: it signals that the central bank’s priority is shifting to controlling inflation by reducing liquidity and potentially raising rates. Statement-II provides the precise definition of the technical term used in Statement-I. The MPC’s action (Statement-I) is an application of the policy definition (Statement-II). Thus, Statement-II correctly explains the meaning and implication of Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Recent MPC meetings, as reported in October 2025, have shown that the committee voted to maintain the repo rate and continue with the policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’. Statement-II is correct. An “accommodative” stance is when the central bank is willing to cut interest rates and inject liquidity to support growth. “Withdrawal of accommodation” is the opposite: it signals that the central bank’s priority is shifting to controlling inflation by reducing liquidity and potentially raising rates. Statement-II provides the precise definition of the technical term used in Statement-I. The MPC’s action (Statement-I) is an application of the policy definition (Statement-II). Thus, Statement-II correctly explains the meaning and implication of Statement-I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) recently maintained the policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’.

Statement II: A ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ stance implies that the central bank is focused on withdrawing the liquidity and monetary support that was extended during a period of economic stress, and is prepared to increase interest rates to manage inflation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Recent MPC meetings, as reported in October 2025, have shown that the committee voted to maintain the repo rate and continue with the policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’.

• Statement-II is correct. An “accommodative” stance is when the central bank is willing to cut interest rates and inject liquidity to support growth. “Withdrawal of accommodation” is the opposite: it signals that the central bank’s priority is shifting to controlling inflation by reducing liquidity and potentially raising rates.

• Statement-II provides the precise definition of the technical term used in Statement-I. The MPC’s action (Statement-I) is an application of the policy definition (Statement-II). Thus, Statement-II correctly explains the meaning and implication of Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The term “Agency Banks” was seen in the news. In this context, which of the following statements is correct? (a) They are banks exclusively licensed to manage the government's foreign exchange reserves. (b) They are banks appointed by the RBI under the RBI Act, 1934, to conduct government business, such as tax collection and pension payments, on its behalf. (c) They are specialized banks set up to fund development projects in specific "aspirational" districts. (d) They are foreign banks that operate in India only through agency agreements with domestic public sector banks. Correct Solution: B (a) is incorrect. Management of forex reserves is a core central banking function of the RBI itself. (b) is correct. The RBI Act, 1934, allows the RBI to appoint other banks (both public and private sector) as its “agents” to handle the general banking business of the Central and State Governments (e.g., collecting taxes, making payments, handling pensions). These are known as “Agency Banks”. (c) is incorrect. This describes a development finance institution (DFI) or a specialized bank, not an Agency Bank. (d) is incorrect. This describes a particular model of foreign bank operation, not the definition of an Agency Bank. Incorrect Solution: B (a) is incorrect. Management of forex reserves is a core central banking function of the RBI itself. (b) is correct. The RBI Act, 1934, allows the RBI to appoint other banks (both public and private sector) as its “agents” to handle the general banking business of the Central and State Governments (e.g., collecting taxes, making payments, handling pensions). These are known as “Agency Banks”. (c) is incorrect. This describes a development finance institution (DFI) or a specialized bank, not an Agency Bank. (d) is incorrect. This describes a particular model of foreign bank operation, not the definition of an Agency Bank.

#### 2. Question

The term “Agency Banks” was seen in the news. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) They are banks exclusively licensed to manage the government's foreign exchange reserves.

• (b) They are banks appointed by the RBI under the RBI Act, 1934, to conduct government business, such as tax collection and pension payments, on its behalf.

• (c) They are specialized banks set up to fund development projects in specific "aspirational" districts.

• (d) They are foreign banks that operate in India only through agency agreements with domestic public sector banks.

Solution: B

• (a) is incorrect. Management of forex reserves is a core central banking function of the RBI itself.

• (b) is correct. The RBI Act, 1934, allows the RBI to appoint other banks (both public and private sector) as its “agents” to handle the general banking business of the Central and State Governments (e.g., collecting taxes, making payments, handling pensions). These are known as “Agency Banks”.

• (c) is incorrect. This describes a development finance institution (DFI) or a specialized bank, not an Agency Bank.

• (d) is incorrect. This describes a particular model of foreign bank operation, not the definition of an Agency Bank.

Solution: B

• (a) is incorrect. Management of forex reserves is a core central banking function of the RBI itself.

• (c) is incorrect. This describes a development finance institution (DFI) or a specialized bank, not an Agency Bank.

• (d) is incorrect. This describes a particular model of foreign bank operation, not the definition of an Agency Bank.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Rainfall is a key factor in the chemical weathering of rocks. Statement II: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric carbon dioxide, forming a weak acid. Statement III: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen, which facilitates oxidation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Rainfall is a primary agent of weathering, both physical (e.g., abrasion) and chemical. Statement II is correct. When rainwater falls, it dissolves carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, forming carbonic acid. This weak acid is highly effective at dissolving rocks, especially carbonate rocks like limestone, through a process called carbonation. This is a key part of chemical weathering. Statement III is correct. Rainwater also contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen. This oxygen reacts with iron-bearing minerals in rocks (like biotite or pyrite) in a process called oxidation (essentially, rusting). This weakens the rock structure and is another major type of chemical weathering. Both Statement II (carbonation) and Statement III (oxidation) describe how rainwater acts as an agent of chemical weathering. Both are distinct, valid, and significant chemical processes that explain why Statement I is true. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Rainfall is a primary agent of weathering, both physical (e.g., abrasion) and chemical. Statement II is correct. When rainwater falls, it dissolves carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, forming carbonic acid. This weak acid is highly effective at dissolving rocks, especially carbonate rocks like limestone, through a process called carbonation. This is a key part of chemical weathering. Statement III is correct. Rainwater also contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen. This oxygen reacts with iron-bearing minerals in rocks (like biotite or pyrite) in a process called oxidation (essentially, rusting). This weakens the rock structure and is another major type of chemical weathering. Both Statement II (carbonation) and Statement III (oxidation) describe how rainwater acts as an agent of chemical weathering. Both are distinct, valid, and significant chemical processes that explain why Statement I is true.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Rainfall is a key factor in the chemical weathering of rocks.

Statement II: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric carbon dioxide, forming a weak acid.

Statement III: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen, which facilitates oxidation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Rainfall is a primary agent of weathering, both physical (e.g., abrasion) and chemical.

• Statement II is correct. When rainwater falls, it dissolves carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, forming carbonic acid. This weak acid is highly effective at dissolving rocks, especially carbonate rocks like limestone, through a process called carbonation. This is a key part of chemical weathering.

• Statement III is correct. Rainwater also contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen. This oxygen reacts with iron-bearing minerals in rocks (like biotite or pyrite) in a process called oxidation (essentially, rusting). This weakens the rock structure and is another major type of chemical weathering.

• Both Statement II (carbonation) and Statement III (oxidation) describe how rainwater acts as an agent of chemical weathering. Both are distinct, valid, and significant chemical processes that explain why Statement I is true.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Rainfall is a primary agent of weathering, both physical (e.g., abrasion) and chemical.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following is the primary reason for the formation of tropical cyclones, such as Cyclone Montha, in the Bay of Bengal during October? (a) The shifting of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) to the south, over the warm ocean waters. (b) The presence of strong vertical wind shear, which helps in the vertical development of clouds. (c) The inflow of cold, dry air from the retreating northeast monsoon. (d) The formation of strong westerly jet streams over the Indian subcontinent. Correct Solution: A (a) is correct. The post-monsoon season (October-November) is a peak cyclone season because the southwest monsoon has retreated, but the ocean waters are still very warm (sea surface temperatures > 27-28°C). The ITCZ, a low-pressure belt, shifts southwards over these warm waters, providing the necessary ‘low-level cyclonic vorticity’ or spin for a storm to develop. (b) is incorrect. Strong vertical wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) is detrimental to cyclone formation. It tears the storm’s vertical structure apart. Cyclones require low vertical wind shear. (c) is incorrect. An inflow of cold, dry air would inhibit the formation of the warm, moist, convective clouds that fuel a cyclone. (d) is incorrect. The westerly jet stream is a feature of the upper atmosphere, and its position in winter (further south) is associated with western disturbances, not tropical cyclones in the Bay. Incorrect Solution: A (a) is correct. The post-monsoon season (October-November) is a peak cyclone season because the southwest monsoon has retreated, but the ocean waters are still very warm (sea surface temperatures > 27-28°C). The ITCZ, a low-pressure belt, shifts southwards over these warm waters, providing the necessary ‘low-level cyclonic vorticity’ or spin for a storm to develop. (b) is incorrect. Strong vertical wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) is detrimental to cyclone formation. It tears the storm’s vertical structure apart. Cyclones require low vertical wind shear. (c) is incorrect. An inflow of cold, dry air would inhibit the formation of the warm, moist, convective clouds that fuel a cyclone. (d) is incorrect. The westerly jet stream is a feature of the upper atmosphere, and its position in winter (further south) is associated with western disturbances, not tropical cyclones in the Bay.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is the primary reason for the formation of tropical cyclones, such as Cyclone Montha, in the Bay of Bengal during October?

• (a) The shifting of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) to the south, over the warm ocean waters.

• (b) The presence of strong vertical wind shear, which helps in the vertical development of clouds.

• (c) The inflow of cold, dry air from the retreating northeast monsoon.

• (d) The formation of strong westerly jet streams over the Indian subcontinent.

Solution: A

• (a) is correct. The post-monsoon season (October-November) is a peak cyclone season because the southwest monsoon has retreated, but the ocean waters are still very warm (sea surface temperatures > 27-28°C). The ITCZ, a low-pressure belt, shifts southwards over these warm waters, providing the necessary ‘low-level cyclonic vorticity’ or spin for a storm to develop.

• (b) is incorrect. Strong vertical wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) is detrimental to cyclone formation. It tears the storm’s vertical structure apart. Cyclones require low vertical wind shear.

• (c) is incorrect. An inflow of cold, dry air would inhibit the formation of the warm, moist, convective clouds that fuel a cyclone.

• (d) is incorrect. The westerly jet stream is a feature of the upper atmosphere, and its position in winter (further south) is associated with western disturbances, not tropical cyclones in the Bay.

Solution: A

• (c) is incorrect. An inflow of cold, dry air would inhibit the formation of the warm, moist, convective clouds that fuel a cyclone.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question India’s plan to use Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) is part of a broader “Integrated Power Strategy”. This strategy involves combining SMRs with which of the following? Renewable energy sources Retired coal plant sites Energy storage systems Green hydrogen hubs Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The strategy involves combining renewables (like solar and wind) with SMRs, which provide the baseload power that renewables lack. Statement 2 is correct. A key proposal is “Site Repurposing,” which involves converting retired coal plants into nuclear-ready SMR sites, taking advantage of existing grid connections and (in some cases) land. Statement 3 is correct. The integrated strategy explicitly mentions combining “renewables, SMRs, and storage systems” to create resilient energy ecosystems. Statement 4 is correct. The proposal for site repurposing also includes converting hydrogen hubs into SMR sites, suggesting a co-location or integration strategy. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The strategy involves combining renewables (like solar and wind) with SMRs, which provide the baseload power that renewables lack. Statement 2 is correct. A key proposal is “Site Repurposing,” which involves converting retired coal plants into nuclear-ready SMR sites, taking advantage of existing grid connections and (in some cases) land. Statement 3 is correct. The integrated strategy explicitly mentions combining “renewables, SMRs, and storage systems” to create resilient energy ecosystems. Statement 4 is correct. The proposal for site repurposing also includes converting hydrogen hubs into SMR sites, suggesting a co-location or integration strategy.

#### 5. Question

India’s plan to use Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) is part of a broader “Integrated Power Strategy”. This strategy involves combining SMRs with which of the following?

• Renewable energy sources

• Retired coal plant sites

• Energy storage systems

• Green hydrogen hubs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The strategy involves combining renewables (like solar and wind) with SMRs, which provide the baseload power that renewables lack.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key proposal is “Site Repurposing,” which involves converting retired coal plants into nuclear-ready SMR sites, taking advantage of existing grid connections and (in some cases) land.

• Statement 3 is correct. The integrated strategy explicitly mentions combining “renewables, SMRs, and storage systems” to create resilient energy ecosystems.

• Statement 4 is correct. The proposal for site repurposing also includes converting hydrogen hubs into SMR sites, suggesting a co-location or integration strategy.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The strategy involves combining renewables (like solar and wind) with SMRs, which provide the baseload power that renewables lack.

• Statement 3 is correct. The integrated strategy explicitly mentions combining “renewables, SMRs, and storage systems” to create resilient energy ecosystems.

• Statement 4 is correct. The proposal for site repurposing also includes converting hydrogen hubs into SMR sites, suggesting a co-location or integration strategy.

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