UPSC Editorials Quiz : 11 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Chemicals Promotion and Development Scheme (CPDS): The scheme’s primary objective is to provide ‘hard support’ in the form of capital grants for setting up new chemical industries. One of its key components involves giving National Awards to recognize excellence in research and innovation in the chemicals sector. Mega events like ‘India Chem’ are organized under this scheme to promote trade and attract foreign investment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Chemicals Promotion and Development Scheme (CPDS) is a long-standing initiative of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, designed to facilitate the growth of the industry through non-financial, strategic interventions. Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme’s aim is explicitly to provide ‘soft support’, not ‘hard support’. This support is primarily in the form of Grants-in-Aid to organizations and industry associations for conducting studies, surveys, workshops, and seminars. The purpose is to generate knowledge products and policy inputs for the department, rather than providing direct capital grants for industrial setup. Statement 2 is correct. The CPDS has four distinct components. Component III is ‘Excellence Awards’, under which National Awards are given to recognize and incentivize excellence in research and innovation within the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Sector. This aligns with the scheme’s objective of fostering an innovative ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. Component II of the scheme is ‘Knowledge dissemination’, which includes the organization of seminars, conferences, and exhibitions. Mega events like ‘India Chem’ are explicitly mentioned as being organized under the CPDS. These events are crucial for promoting national and international trade, attracting foreign investment, and showcasing the potential of the Indian chemical industry to a global audience. Incorrect Solution: B The Chemicals Promotion and Development Scheme (CPDS) is a long-standing initiative of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, designed to facilitate the growth of the industry through non-financial, strategic interventions. Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme’s aim is explicitly to provide ‘soft support’, not ‘hard support’. This support is primarily in the form of Grants-in-Aid to organizations and industry associations for conducting studies, surveys, workshops, and seminars. The purpose is to generate knowledge products and policy inputs for the department, rather than providing direct capital grants for industrial setup. Statement 2 is correct. The CPDS has four distinct components. Component III is ‘Excellence Awards’, under which National Awards are given to recognize and incentivize excellence in research and innovation within the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Sector. This aligns with the scheme’s objective of fostering an innovative ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. Component II of the scheme is ‘Knowledge dissemination’, which includes the organization of seminars, conferences, and exhibitions. Mega events like ‘India Chem’ are explicitly mentioned as being organized under the CPDS. These events are crucial for promoting national and international trade, attracting foreign investment, and showcasing the potential of the Indian chemical industry to a global audience.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Chemicals Promotion and Development Scheme (CPDS):

• The scheme’s primary objective is to provide ‘hard support’ in the form of capital grants for setting up new chemical industries.

• One of its key components involves giving National Awards to recognize excellence in research and innovation in the chemicals sector.

• Mega events like ‘India Chem’ are organized under this scheme to promote trade and attract foreign investment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Chemicals Promotion and Development Scheme (CPDS) is a long-standing initiative of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, designed to facilitate the growth of the industry through non-financial, strategic interventions.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme’s aim is explicitly to provide ‘soft support’, not ‘hard support’. This support is primarily in the form of Grants-in-Aid to organizations and industry associations for conducting studies, surveys, workshops, and seminars. The purpose is to generate knowledge products and policy inputs for the department, rather than providing direct capital grants for industrial setup.

• Statement 2 is correct. The CPDS has four distinct components. Component III is ‘Excellence Awards’, under which National Awards are given to recognize and incentivize excellence in research and innovation within the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Sector. This aligns with the scheme’s objective of fostering an innovative ecosystem.

• Statement 3 is correct. Component II of the scheme is ‘Knowledge dissemination’, which includes the organization of seminars, conferences, and exhibitions. Mega events like ‘India Chem’ are explicitly mentioned as being organized under the CPDS. These events are crucial for promoting national and international trade, attracting foreign investment, and showcasing the potential of the Indian chemical industry to a global audience.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976 added the word “Socialist” to the Preamble. Statement II: The addition of the word “Socialist” to the Preamble was intended to formally reflect the welfare-oriented philosophy already implicit in the Directive Principles of State Policy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is factually correct; the 42nd Amendment did add “Socialist” to the Preamble. Statement II provides the primary rationale for this addition. The framers of the Constitution had already included socialist principles within the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a just social, economic, and political order. For instance, Article 39(b) and (c) aim for equitable distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth. The amendment, therefore, made this implicit commitment explicit in the Preamble itself. It was a formal acknowledgment of India’s long-standing commitment to a welfare state model, aimed at reducing inequalities and ensuring social justice. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is factually correct; the 42nd Amendment did add “Socialist” to the Preamble. Statement II provides the primary rationale for this addition. The framers of the Constitution had already included socialist principles within the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a just social, economic, and political order. For instance, Article 39(b) and (c) aim for equitable distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth. The amendment, therefore, made this implicit commitment explicit in the Preamble itself. It was a formal acknowledgment of India’s long-standing commitment to a welfare state model, aimed at reducing inequalities and ensuring social justice. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976 added the word “Socialist” to the Preamble.

Statement II: The addition of the word “Socialist” to the Preamble was intended to formally reflect the welfare-oriented philosophy already implicit in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Statement I is factually correct; the 42nd Amendment did add “Socialist” to the Preamble.

Statement II provides the primary rationale for this addition. The framers of the Constitution had already included socialist principles within the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a just social, economic, and political order. For instance, Article 39(b) and (c) aim for equitable distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth. The amendment, therefore, made this implicit commitment explicit in the Preamble itself. It was a formal acknowledgment of India’s long-standing commitment to a welfare state model, aimed at reducing inequalities and ensuring social justice. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

Statement I is factually correct; the 42nd Amendment did add “Socialist” to the Preamble.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem of schemes under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports: Statement I: The Khelo India scheme is primarily designed for grassroots talent identification and development, while the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) is focused on providing elite support to potential Olympic medalists. Statement II: An athlete identified under the Khelo India scheme who shows potential for international success can be inducted into the TOPS Development Group for further specialized training and financial support. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The Khelo India scheme has a broad mandate focusing on mass participation, infrastructure development at the grassroots level, and identification of young talent through events like the Khelo India Youth Games and initiatives like KIRTI (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification). The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), on the other hand, is a highly selective, elite scheme that identifies athletes with a strong potential to win medals at the Olympic and Paralympic Games and provides them with customized, world-class support. Statement II is also correct. It describes the functional linkage and progression between the two schemes. The Khelo India ecosystem acts as a feeder system for the elite TOPS scheme. Promising athletes identified and nurtured at the Khelo India level are regularly assessed, and those who demonstrate the potential to excel on the international stage are inducted into the TOPS Development Group. This group provides a pathway to the TOPS Core Group, ensuring a seamless transition from junior to senior elite levels with continuous support. Statement II provides a practical example of how the distinct roles described in Statement I function as an integrated system. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The Khelo India scheme has a broad mandate focusing on mass participation, infrastructure development at the grassroots level, and identification of young talent through events like the Khelo India Youth Games and initiatives like KIRTI (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification). The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), on the other hand, is a highly selective, elite scheme that identifies athletes with a strong potential to win medals at the Olympic and Paralympic Games and provides them with customized, world-class support. Statement II is also correct. It describes the functional linkage and progression between the two schemes. The Khelo India ecosystem acts as a feeder system for the elite TOPS scheme. Promising athletes identified and nurtured at the Khelo India level are regularly assessed, and those who demonstrate the potential to excel on the international stage are inducted into the TOPS Development Group. This group provides a pathway to the TOPS Core Group, ensuring a seamless transition from junior to senior elite levels with continuous support. Statement II provides a practical example of how the distinct roles described in Statement I function as an integrated system.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem of schemes under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports:

Statement I: The Khelo India scheme is primarily designed for grassroots talent identification and development, while the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) is focused on providing elite support to potential Olympic medalists.

Statement II: An athlete identified under the Khelo India scheme who shows potential for international success can be inducted into the TOPS Development Group for further specialized training and financial support.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The Khelo India scheme has a broad mandate focusing on mass participation, infrastructure development at the grassroots level, and identification of young talent through events like the Khelo India Youth Games and initiatives like KIRTI (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification). The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), on the other hand, is a highly selective, elite scheme that identifies athletes with a strong potential to win medals at the Olympic and Paralympic Games and provides them with customized, world-class support.

• Statement II is also correct. It describes the functional linkage and progression between the two schemes. The Khelo India ecosystem acts as a feeder system for the elite TOPS scheme. Promising athletes identified and nurtured at the Khelo India level are regularly assessed, and those who demonstrate the potential to excel on the international stage are inducted into the TOPS Development Group. This group provides a pathway to the TOPS Core Group, ensuring a seamless transition from junior to senior elite levels with continuous support.

• Statement II provides a practical example of how the distinct roles described in Statement I function as an integrated system.

Solution: A

• Statement II provides a practical example of how the distinct roles described in Statement I function as an integrated system.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following statements best distinguishes between a Code of Conduct and a Code of Ethics? (a) A Code of Conduct is primarily value-driven, whereas a Code of Ethics is rule-based. (b) A Code of Conduct provides a general framework of moral philosophy, while a Code of Ethics specifies actionable behaviours. (c) A Code of Conduct is focused on adherence to legal and institutional rules, whereas a Code of Ethics is oriented towards guiding principles like integrity and justice. (d) A Code of Conduct applies only to senior management, while a Code of Ethics applies to all employees within an organization. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. It reverses the definitions. A Code of Ethics is value-driven (based on virtues and moral principles), while a Code of Conduct is more rule-based and compliance-oriented. Option (b) is incorrect. This also presents a reversal of the actual definitions. A Code of Ethics deals with the broader moral philosophy, while a Code of Conduct is the actionable document that lists specific expected behaviours and prohibitions. Option (c) is correct. It accurately captures the core difference. A Code of Conduct is a set of specific rules and guidelines that an individual or organization must follow, often focusing on compliance with laws and internal policies (a deontological, or duty-based, approach). In contrast, a Code of Ethics is a broader, aspirational document that outlines the core values and moral principles (like integrity, equity, and justice) that should guide decisions and character (a virtue ethics approach). Option (d) is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. It reverses the definitions. A Code of Ethics is value-driven (based on virtues and moral principles), while a Code of Conduct is more rule-based and compliance-oriented. Option (b) is incorrect. This also presents a reversal of the actual definitions. A Code of Ethics deals with the broader moral philosophy, while a Code of Conduct is the actionable document that lists specific expected behaviours and prohibitions. Option (c) is correct. It accurately captures the core difference. A Code of Conduct is a set of specific rules and guidelines that an individual or organization must follow, often focusing on compliance with laws and internal policies (a deontological, or duty-based, approach). In contrast, a Code of Ethics is a broader, aspirational document that outlines the core values and moral principles (like integrity, equity, and justice) that should guide decisions and character (a virtue ethics approach). Option (d) is incorrect.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements best distinguishes between a Code of Conduct and a Code of Ethics?

• (a) A Code of Conduct is primarily value-driven, whereas a Code of Ethics is rule-based.

• (b) A Code of Conduct provides a general framework of moral philosophy, while a Code of Ethics specifies actionable behaviours.

• (c) A Code of Conduct is focused on adherence to legal and institutional rules, whereas a Code of Ethics is oriented towards guiding principles like integrity and justice.

• (d) A Code of Conduct applies only to senior management, while a Code of Ethics applies to all employees within an organization.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. It reverses the definitions. A Code of Ethics is value-driven (based on virtues and moral principles), while a Code of Conduct is more rule-based and compliance-oriented.

• Option (b) is incorrect. This also presents a reversal of the actual definitions. A Code of Ethics deals with the broader moral philosophy, while a Code of Conduct is the actionable document that lists specific expected behaviours and prohibitions.

• Option (c) is correct. It accurately captures the core difference. A Code of Conduct is a set of specific rules and guidelines that an individual or organization must follow, often focusing on compliance with laws and internal policies (a deontological, or duty-based, approach). In contrast, a Code of Ethics is a broader, aspirational document that outlines the core values and moral principles (like integrity, equity, and justice) that should guide decisions and character (a virtue ethics approach).

Option (d) is incorrect.

Solution: C

Option (d) is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Maternal Mortality in India: A maternal death, as defined by the World Health Organization, is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the cause of death. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) primarily focuses on reducing maternal mortality by providing free transport, diagnostics, and cashless delivery services in public health facilities. As per the latest Sample Registration System (SRS) data, there is a significant disparity in the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) between the Southern States and the Empowered Action Group (EAG) States. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The WHO definition specifies that maternal death must be from a cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management. It excludes accidental or incidental causes. The phrase “irrespective of the cause of death” makes this statement inaccurate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes institutional deliveries through direct financial incentives to pregnant women and ASHA workers. The provision of free transport, diagnostics, and delivery services is the core objective of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK). Statement 3 is correct. The data clearly indicates that Southern states like Kerala have a very low MMR (e.g., 20), while Empowered Action Group (EAG) states like Assam have the highest (167). This highlights a stark regional imbalance in maternal healthcare outcomes, which is a key challenge for public health policy in India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The WHO definition specifies that maternal death must be from a cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management. It excludes accidental or incidental causes. The phrase “irrespective of the cause of death” makes this statement inaccurate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes institutional deliveries through direct financial incentives to pregnant women and ASHA workers. The provision of free transport, diagnostics, and delivery services is the core objective of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK). Statement 3 is correct. The data clearly indicates that Southern states like Kerala have a very low MMR (e.g., 20), while Empowered Action Group (EAG) states like Assam have the highest (167). This highlights a stark regional imbalance in maternal healthcare outcomes, which is a key challenge for public health policy in India.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Maternal Mortality in India:

• A maternal death, as defined by the World Health Organization, is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the cause of death.

• The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) primarily focuses on reducing maternal mortality by providing free transport, diagnostics, and cashless delivery services in public health facilities.

• As per the latest Sample Registration System (SRS) data, there is a significant disparity in the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) between the Southern States and the Empowered Action Group (EAG) States.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The WHO definition specifies that maternal death must be from a cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management. It excludes accidental or incidental causes. The phrase “irrespective of the cause of death” makes this statement inaccurate.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes institutional deliveries through direct financial incentives to pregnant women and ASHA workers. The provision of free transport, diagnostics, and delivery services is the core objective of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK).

• Statement 3 is correct. The data clearly indicates that Southern states like Kerala have a very low MMR (e.g., 20), while Empowered Action Group (EAG) states like Assam have the highest (167). This highlights a stark regional imbalance in maternal healthcare outcomes, which is a key challenge for public health policy in India.

Solution: B

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