UPSC Editorials Quiz : 11 February 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following potential applications of plastic-degrading bacteria: Reducing ocean plastic pollution by microbial bio-remediation. Enhancing plastic recycling efficiency by breaking down polymers into reusable monomers. Converting plastic waste into biofuels or biodegradable products. Which of the above applications are feasible? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is feasible because bioremediation using plastic-degrading bacteria is an emerging approach to reducing ocean plastic pollution. These microbes break down plastic waste in marine environments, potentially mitigating the long-term accumulation of plastics in oceans. However, challenges such as environmental conditions and efficiency remain. Statement 2 is also valid, as enzyme-based plastic recycling technologies use microbial enzymes to break down polymers into their original monomers. This allows for more effective recycling and the reuse of plastic materials, reducing the reliance on virgin plastics and lowering overall waste. Statement 3 is feasible as well, with advancements in synthetic biology enabling engineered microbes to convert plastic waste into biofuels or biodegradable products. Some bacteria can metabolize plastic components into useful byproducts, providing a sustainable approach to waste-to-energy conversion. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is feasible because bioremediation using plastic-degrading bacteria is an emerging approach to reducing ocean plastic pollution. These microbes break down plastic waste in marine environments, potentially mitigating the long-term accumulation of plastics in oceans. However, challenges such as environmental conditions and efficiency remain. Statement 2 is also valid, as enzyme-based plastic recycling technologies use microbial enzymes to break down polymers into their original monomers. This allows for more effective recycling and the reuse of plastic materials, reducing the reliance on virgin plastics and lowering overall waste. Statement 3 is feasible as well, with advancements in synthetic biology enabling engineered microbes to convert plastic waste into biofuels or biodegradable products. Some bacteria can metabolize plastic components into useful byproducts, providing a sustainable approach to waste-to-energy conversion.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following potential applications of plastic-degrading bacteria:

• Reducing ocean plastic pollution by microbial bio-remediation.

• Enhancing plastic recycling efficiency by breaking down polymers into reusable monomers.

• Converting plastic waste into biofuels or biodegradable products.

Which of the above applications are feasible?

• a) 1 and 2

• b) 1 and 3

• c) 2 and 3

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is feasible because bioremediation using plastic-degrading bacteria is an emerging approach to reducing ocean plastic pollution. These microbes break down plastic waste in marine environments, potentially mitigating the long-term accumulation of plastics in oceans. However, challenges such as environmental conditions and efficiency remain.

Statement 2 is also valid, as enzyme-based plastic recycling technologies use microbial enzymes to break down polymers into their original monomers. This allows for more effective recycling and the reuse of plastic materials, reducing the reliance on virgin plastics and lowering overall waste.

Statement 3 is feasible as well, with advancements in synthetic biology enabling engineered microbes to convert plastic waste into biofuels or biodegradable products. Some bacteria can metabolize plastic components into useful byproducts, providing a sustainable approach to waste-to-energy conversion.

Solution: d)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India (ECI): The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) enjoys a tenure of five years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The Election Commission functions as a quasi-judicial body in resolving electoral disputes. The appointment process of Election Commissioners changed after the 2023 Supreme Court ruling. ECI has the power to remove a political party’s recognition for violating electoral laws. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have a fixed five-year tenure. Instead, the CEC serves for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This ensures continuity and experience in overseeing electoral processes. Statement 2 is correct, as the ECI functions as a quasi-judicial body while resolving disputes related to elections. It has the authority to adjudicate matters concerning electoral malpractices, disputes over election symbols, and violations of the Model Code of Conduct. Statement 3 is correct because the 2023 Supreme Court ruling altered the appointment process of Election Commissioners, ensuring greater transparency and reducing executive control. The ruling emphasized an independent selection process. Statement 4 is correct as ECI has the power to deregister or withdraw recognition of political parties that violate electoral laws or fail to comply with mandatory guidelines. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have a fixed five-year tenure. Instead, the CEC serves for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This ensures continuity and experience in overseeing electoral processes. Statement 2 is correct, as the ECI functions as a quasi-judicial body while resolving disputes related to elections. It has the authority to adjudicate matters concerning electoral malpractices, disputes over election symbols, and violations of the Model Code of Conduct. Statement 3 is correct because the 2023 Supreme Court ruling altered the appointment process of Election Commissioners, ensuring greater transparency and reducing executive control. The ruling emphasized an independent selection process. Statement 4 is correct as ECI has the power to deregister or withdraw recognition of political parties that violate electoral laws or fail to comply with mandatory guidelines.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) enjoys a tenure of five years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

• The Election Commission functions as a quasi-judicial body in resolving electoral disputes.

• The appointment process of Election Commissioners changed after the 2023 Supreme Court ruling.

• ECI has the power to remove a political party’s recognition for violating electoral laws.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have a fixed five-year tenure. Instead, the CEC serves for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This ensures continuity and experience in overseeing electoral processes.

Statement 2 is correct, as the ECI functions as a quasi-judicial body while resolving disputes related to elections. It has the authority to adjudicate matters concerning electoral malpractices, disputes over election symbols, and violations of the Model Code of Conduct.

Statement 3 is correct because the 2023 Supreme Court ruling altered the appointment process of Election Commissioners, ensuring greater transparency and reducing executive control. The ruling emphasized an independent selection process.

Statement 4 is correct as ECI has the power to deregister or withdraw recognition of political parties that violate electoral laws or fail to comply with mandatory guidelines.

Solution: c)

Statement 4 is correct as ECI has the power to deregister or withdraw recognition of political parties that violate electoral laws or fail to comply with mandatory guidelines.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding global glacier meltdown: Glacier retreat leads to the expansion of high-altitude ecosystems, promoting biodiversity. The loss of glacial ice contributes to the reduction of Earth’s albedo, accelerating global warming. Glacier melting is primarily influenced by volcanic activity rather than climate change. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because while glacier retreat exposes new land, it does not necessarily lead to an expansion of high-altitude ecosystems or promote biodiversity. Instead, it disrupts fragile alpine ecosystems, endangers species that rely on glacial habitats, and alters freshwater availability, often leading to biodiversity decline rather than expansion. Statement 2 is correct as the loss of glacial ice reduces Earth’s albedo (reflectivity). Glaciers and ice sheets reflect a significant portion of solar radiation, helping regulate global temperatures. When they melt, darker surfaces such as land and water absorb more heat, intensifying global warming in a positive feedback loop. Statement 3 is incorrect because while volcanic activity can contribute locally to glacier melting, the primary driver of global glacier retreat is climate change. Rising global temperatures, increased CO₂ levels, and black carbon deposits from human activities are the major contributors. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because while glacier retreat exposes new land, it does not necessarily lead to an expansion of high-altitude ecosystems or promote biodiversity. Instead, it disrupts fragile alpine ecosystems, endangers species that rely on glacial habitats, and alters freshwater availability, often leading to biodiversity decline rather than expansion. Statement 2 is correct as the loss of glacial ice reduces Earth’s albedo (reflectivity). Glaciers and ice sheets reflect a significant portion of solar radiation, helping regulate global temperatures. When they melt, darker surfaces such as land and water absorb more heat, intensifying global warming in a positive feedback loop. Statement 3 is incorrect because while volcanic activity can contribute locally to glacier melting, the primary driver of global glacier retreat is climate change. Rising global temperatures, increased CO₂ levels, and black carbon deposits from human activities are the major contributors. Option a is incorrect: While submarine warfare is a key part of TROPEX-25, it is not the primary focus. The exercise tests overall naval combat readiness. Option b is correct: TROPEX is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Navy, Air Force, Army, and Coast Guard, aiming to test interoperability and combat preparedness. Option c is incorrect: Although India has sea-based nuclear deterrence (SSBNs), TROPEX is not focused on live nuclear missile tests. Option d is incorrect: TROPEX does not focus solely on anti-piracy operations, though maritime security is one of its components. About Theatre Level Operational Exercise (TROPEX-25): What is TROPEX? Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise (TROPEX) is the Indian Navy’slargest biennial maritime exercise, testing combat readiness and joint warfighting capabilities. Location:Hosted by India, the exercise is conducted across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), including strategic maritime zones. Participation: Led by the Indian Navy, with substantial participation from the Indian Army, Air Force, and Coast Guard. Key Features & Objectives: Focuses on maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, cyber and electronic warfare, and live weapon firings. Tests integrated response strategiesagainst conventional, asymmetric, and hybrid threats. Includes joint work-up phases, amphibious exercises,and combat scenario simulations.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding global glacier meltdown:

• Glacier retreat leads to the expansion of high-altitude ecosystems, promoting biodiversity.

• The loss of glacial ice contributes to the reduction of Earth’s albedo, accelerating global warming.

• Glacier melting is primarily influenced by volcanic activity rather than climate change.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect because while glacier retreat exposes new land, it does not necessarily lead to an expansion of high-altitude ecosystems or promote biodiversity. Instead, it disrupts fragile alpine ecosystems, endangers species that rely on glacial habitats, and alters freshwater availability, often leading to biodiversity decline rather than expansion.

Statement 2 is correct as the loss of glacial ice reduces Earth’s albedo (reflectivity). Glaciers and ice sheets reflect a significant portion of solar radiation, helping regulate global temperatures. When they melt, darker surfaces such as land and water absorb more heat, intensifying global warming in a positive feedback loop.

Statement 3 is incorrect because while volcanic activity can contribute locally to glacier melting, the primary driver of global glacier retreat is climate change. Rising global temperatures, increased CO₂ levels, and black carbon deposits from human activities are the major contributors.

Solution: a)

Option a is incorrect: While submarine warfare is a key part of TROPEX-25, it is not the primary focus. The exercise tests overall naval combat readiness.

Option b is correct: TROPEX is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Navy, Air Force, Army, and Coast Guard, aiming to test interoperability and combat preparedness.

Option c is incorrect: Although India has sea-based nuclear deterrence (SSBNs), TROPEX is not focused on live nuclear missile tests.

Option d is incorrect: TROPEX does not focus solely on anti-piracy operations, though maritime security is one of its components.

About Theatre Level Operational Exercise (TROPEX-25):

• What is TROPEX? Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise (TROPEX) is the Indian Navy’slargest biennial maritime exercise, testing combat readiness and joint warfighting capabilities.

• Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise (TROPEX) is the Indian Navy’slargest biennial maritime exercise, testing combat readiness and joint warfighting capabilities.

• Location:Hosted by India, the exercise is conducted across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), including strategic maritime zones.

• Participation: Led by the Indian Navy, with substantial participation from the Indian Army, Air Force, and Coast Guard.

• Led by the Indian Navy, with substantial participation from the Indian Army, Air Force, and Coast Guard.

Key Features & Objectives:

• Focuses on maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, cyber and electronic warfare, and live weapon firings.

• Tests integrated response strategiesagainst conventional, asymmetric, and hybrid threats.

• Includes joint work-up phases, amphibious exercises,and combat scenario simulations.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies: They can lead to retaliatory protectionist measures from other countries, resulting in trade wars. These policies were a major cause of the Great Depression of the 1930s. The World Trade Organization (WTO) actively promotes such policies to support developing economies. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies refer to economic measures that a country adopts to improve its own economic position at the expense of others, often through protectionism, devaluation, or tariffs. Statement 1 is correct because such policies trigger retaliatory protectionist measures from other countries, leading to trade wars. When one country imposes tariffs or restricts imports, others respond similarly, harming global trade and economic stability. Statement 2 is correct as protectionist measures during the Great Depression, particularly the Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act (1930), significantly worsened the economic crisis. High tariffs led to a dramatic decline in international trade, deepening the global recession. Statement 3 is incorrect because the World Trade Organization (WTO) actively opposes protectionist policies. The WTO promotes free trade agreements, tariff reduction, and dispute resolution to prevent countries from adopting Beggar-Thy-Neighbour strategies. Incorrect Solution: b) Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies refer to economic measures that a country adopts to improve its own economic position at the expense of others, often through protectionism, devaluation, or tariffs. Statement 1 is correct because such policies trigger retaliatory protectionist measures from other countries, leading to trade wars. When one country imposes tariffs or restricts imports, others respond similarly, harming global trade and economic stability. Statement 2 is correct as protectionist measures during the Great Depression, particularly the Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act (1930), significantly worsened the economic crisis. High tariffs led to a dramatic decline in international trade, deepening the global recession. Statement 3 is incorrect because the World Trade Organization (WTO) actively opposes protectionist policies. The WTO promotes free trade agreements, tariff reduction, and dispute resolution to prevent countries from adopting Beggar-Thy-Neighbour strategies.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies:

• They can lead to retaliatory protectionist measures from other countries, resulting in trade wars.

• These policies were a major cause of the Great Depression of the 1930s.

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) actively promotes such policies to support developing economies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies refer to economic measures that a country adopts to improve its own economic position at the expense of others, often through protectionism, devaluation, or tariffs.

Statement 1 is correct because such policies trigger retaliatory protectionist measures from other countries, leading to trade wars. When one country imposes tariffs or restricts imports, others respond similarly, harming global trade and economic stability.

Statement 2 is correct as protectionist measures during the Great Depression, particularly the Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act (1930), significantly worsened the economic crisis. High tariffs led to a dramatic decline in international trade, deepening the global recession.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the World Trade Organization (WTO) actively opposes protectionist policies. The WTO promotes free trade agreements, tariff reduction, and dispute resolution to prevent countries from adopting Beggar-Thy-Neighbour strategies.

Solution: b)

Beggar-Thy-Neighbour policies refer to economic measures that a country adopts to improve its own economic position at the expense of others, often through protectionism, devaluation, or tariffs.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the State Emblem of India: The emblem was designed by Nandalal Bose, a renowned Indian artist. It is mandatory for all government buildings, passports, and currency notes to display the emblem. The Dharma Chakra in the emblem has 24 spokes, representing the 24 hours of the day. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) The State Emblem of India, adopted on January 26, 1950, is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, symbolizing power, courage, and confidence. Statement 1 is incorrect because the emblem was designed by Dinanath Bhargava, not Nandalal Bose. Bhargava, a student of Bose, was responsible for sketching the emblem when India adopted it. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the emblem is used on official documents, government seals, and passports, it is not mandatory for all government buildings and currency notes. Its use is regulated under The State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005. Statement 3 is correct because the Dharma Chakra in the emblem has 24 spokes, representing righteousness (Dharma), justice, and virtue. It is also seen on the Indian national flag, symbolizing continuous progress and motion. Incorrect Solution: a) The State Emblem of India, adopted on January 26, 1950, is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, symbolizing power, courage, and confidence. Statement 1 is incorrect because the emblem was designed by Dinanath Bhargava, not Nandalal Bose. Bhargava, a student of Bose, was responsible for sketching the emblem when India adopted it. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the emblem is used on official documents, government seals, and passports, it is not mandatory for all government buildings and currency notes. Its use is regulated under The State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005. Statement 3 is correct because the Dharma Chakra in the emblem has 24 spokes, representing righteousness (Dharma), justice, and virtue. It is also seen on the Indian national flag, symbolizing continuous progress and motion.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the State Emblem of India:

• The emblem was designed by Nandalal Bose, a renowned Indian artist.

• It is mandatory for all government buildings, passports, and currency notes to display the emblem.

• The Dharma Chakra in the emblem has 24 spokes, representing the 24 hours of the day.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

The State Emblem of India, adopted on January 26, 1950, is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, symbolizing power, courage, and confidence.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the emblem was designed by Dinanath Bhargava, not Nandalal Bose. Bhargava, a student of Bose, was responsible for sketching the emblem when India adopted it.

Statement 2 is incorrect because while the emblem is used on official documents, government seals, and passports, it is not mandatory for all government buildings and currency notes. Its use is regulated under The State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005.

Statement 3 is correct because the Dharma Chakra in the emblem has 24 spokes, representing righteousness (Dharma), justice, and virtue. It is also seen on the Indian national flag, symbolizing continuous progress and motion.

Solution: a)

The State Emblem of India, adopted on January 26, 1950, is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, symbolizing power, courage, and confidence.

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