UPSC Editorials Quiz : 10 September 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question The UMEED Portal, a centralized digital platform for registering and regulating Waqf properties across India, is under the purview of which nodal ministry? (a) Ministry of Law and Justice (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development (c) Ministry of Minority Affairs (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Correct Solution: C The UMEED (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development) Portal is a key initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This ministry is responsible for the welfare and development of minority communities in India, and the UMEED Portal is a significant step towards ensuring transparency, accountability, and efficient management of Waqf properties, which are an important resource for these communities. The portal is managed in coordination with the State Waqf Boards and other relevant judicial authorities. Incorrect Solution: C The UMEED (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development) Portal is a key initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This ministry is responsible for the welfare and development of minority communities in India, and the UMEED Portal is a significant step towards ensuring transparency, accountability, and efficient management of Waqf properties, which are an important resource for these communities. The portal is managed in coordination with the State Waqf Boards and other relevant judicial authorities.
#### 1. Question
The UMEED Portal, a centralized digital platform for registering and regulating Waqf properties across India, is under the purview of which nodal ministry?
• (a) Ministry of Law and Justice
• (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
• (c) Ministry of Minority Affairs
• (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Solution: C
The UMEED (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development) Portal is a key initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This ministry is responsible for the welfare and development of minority communities in India, and the UMEED Portal is a significant step towards ensuring transparency, accountability, and efficient management of Waqf properties, which are an important resource for these communities. The portal is managed in coordination with the State Waqf Boards and other relevant judicial authorities.
Solution: C
The UMEED (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development) Portal is a key initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This ministry is responsible for the welfare and development of minority communities in India, and the UMEED Portal is a significant step towards ensuring transparency, accountability, and efficient management of Waqf properties, which are an important resource for these communities. The portal is managed in coordination with the State Waqf Boards and other relevant judicial authorities.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The BioE3 Policy, under which the National Biofoundry Network has been launched, stands for: (a) Biotechnology for Exports, Entrepreneurship, and Employment (b) Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment (c) Biotechnology for Education, Empowerment, and Economy (d) Biotechnology for Energy, Ecology, and Equity Correct Solution: B The BioE3 Policy is a strategic initiative by the Government of India that aims to leverage the power of biotechnology to drive economic growth, protect the environment, and create employment opportunities. The three ‘E’s in BioE3 stand for Economy, Environment, and Employment. The National Biofoundry Network is a critical component of this policy, as it will provide the necessary infrastructure and collaborative platform to translate biotechnology research into commercially viable and sustainable solutions that can contribute to all three of these goals. Incorrect Solution: B The BioE3 Policy is a strategic initiative by the Government of India that aims to leverage the power of biotechnology to drive economic growth, protect the environment, and create employment opportunities. The three ‘E’s in BioE3 stand for Economy, Environment, and Employment. The National Biofoundry Network is a critical component of this policy, as it will provide the necessary infrastructure and collaborative platform to translate biotechnology research into commercially viable and sustainable solutions that can contribute to all three of these goals.
#### 2. Question
The BioE3 Policy, under which the National Biofoundry Network has been launched, stands for:
• (a) Biotechnology for Exports, Entrepreneurship, and Employment
• (b) Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment
• (c) Biotechnology for Education, Empowerment, and Economy
• (d) Biotechnology for Energy, Ecology, and Equity
Solution: B
The BioE3 Policy is a strategic initiative by the Government of India that aims to leverage the power of biotechnology to drive economic growth, protect the environment, and create employment opportunities. The three ‘E’s in BioE3 stand for Economy, Environment, and Employment. The National Biofoundry Network is a critical component of this policy, as it will provide the necessary infrastructure and collaborative platform to translate biotechnology research into commercially viable and sustainable solutions that can contribute to all three of these goals.
Solution: B
The BioE3 Policy is a strategic initiative by the Government of India that aims to leverage the power of biotechnology to drive economic growth, protect the environment, and create employment opportunities. The three ‘E’s in BioE3 stand for Economy, Environment, and Employment. The National Biofoundry Network is a critical component of this policy, as it will provide the necessary infrastructure and collaborative platform to translate biotechnology research into commercially viable and sustainable solutions that can contribute to all three of these goals.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Gangotri Glacier, consider the following statements: It is the largest glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas. The snout of the glacier, known as Gaumukh, is revered as the origin of the Yamuna river. The glacier is situated within the Gangotri National Park in Uttarakhand. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangotri Glacier is the largest glacier in the Garhwal Himalayas, not the Kumaon Himalayas. While both are part of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand, they are distinct geographical regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The snout of the Gangotri Glacier, Gaumukh, is the source of the Bhagirathi river, which is the headstream of the Ganga river. The Yamuna river originates from the Yamunotri Glacier. Statement 3 is correct. The Gangotri Glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand and lies within the boundaries of the Gangotri National Park. This protected area is home to a rich biodiversity and is of great ecological and cultural significance. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangotri Glacier is the largest glacier in the Garhwal Himalayas, not the Kumaon Himalayas. While both are part of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand, they are distinct geographical regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The snout of the Gangotri Glacier, Gaumukh, is the source of the Bhagirathi river, which is the headstream of the Ganga river. The Yamuna river originates from the Yamunotri Glacier. Statement 3 is correct. The Gangotri Glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand and lies within the boundaries of the Gangotri National Park. This protected area is home to a rich biodiversity and is of great ecological and cultural significance.
#### 3. Question
With reference to the Gangotri Glacier, consider the following statements:
• It is the largest glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas.
• The snout of the glacier, known as Gaumukh, is revered as the origin of the Yamuna river.
• The glacier is situated within the Gangotri National Park in Uttarakhand.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangotri Glacier is the largest glacier in the Garhwal Himalayas, not the Kumaon Himalayas. While both are part of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand, they are distinct geographical regions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The snout of the Gangotri Glacier, Gaumukh, is the source of the Bhagirathi river, which is the headstream of the Ganga river. The Yamuna river originates from the Yamunotri Glacier.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Gangotri Glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand and lies within the boundaries of the Gangotri National Park. This protected area is home to a rich biodiversity and is of great ecological and cultural significance.
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangotri Glacier is the largest glacier in the Garhwal Himalayas, not the Kumaon Himalayas. While both are part of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand, they are distinct geographical regions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The snout of the Gangotri Glacier, Gaumukh, is the source of the Bhagirathi river, which is the headstream of the Ganga river. The Yamuna river originates from the Yamunotri Glacier.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Gangotri Glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand and lies within the boundaries of the Gangotri National Park. This protected area is home to a rich biodiversity and is of great ecological and cultural significance.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the procedure for a vote of confidence in India and France, consider the following statements: In both India and France, the head of state is immune from the vote of confidence process. A successful motion of no-confidence in France requires an absolute majority of the total members of the National Assembly, whereas in India, it requires a simple majority of members present and voting in the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister of France can link the passage of a bill to a confidence vote, a procedural tool not available to the Indian Prime Minister. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C In India’s parliamentary system, the President (Head of State) is not part of the executive responsible to the Parliament, hence is not subject to a confidence vote. In France’s semi-presidential system, the directly elected President (Head of State) remains in office regardless of whether the government loses a confidence vote. The vote of confidence is faced by the Prime Minister and the cabinet. The majority requirement is a key distinction. In India, under Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion needs the support of a simple majority of members present and voting. In France, Article 49(2) mandates that a motion of censure must be passed by an absolute majority of all members of the National Assembly, making it significantly harder to topple a government. France’s Constitution, under Article 49-3, provides a unique tool for the executive. The Prime Minister can make the adoption of a bill dependent on a confidence vote. If no motion of censure is passed in response, the bill is considered adopted. This power to bypass a direct vote on the bill itself is a feature of the “rationalised” parliamentarism of the Fifth Republic and is not present in the Indian system. Incorrect Solution: C In India’s parliamentary system, the President (Head of State) is not part of the executive responsible to the Parliament, hence is not subject to a confidence vote. In France’s semi-presidential system, the directly elected President (Head of State) remains in office regardless of whether the government loses a confidence vote. The vote of confidence is faced by the Prime Minister and the cabinet. The majority requirement is a key distinction. In India, under Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion needs the support of a simple majority of members present and voting. In France, Article 49(2) mandates that a motion of censure must be passed by an absolute majority of all members of the National Assembly, making it significantly harder to topple a government. France’s Constitution, under Article 49-3, provides a unique tool for the executive. The Prime Minister can make the adoption of a bill dependent on a confidence vote. If no motion of censure is passed in response, the bill is considered adopted. This power to bypass a direct vote on the bill itself is a feature of the “rationalised” parliamentarism of the Fifth Republic and is not present in the Indian system.
#### 4. Question
With reference to the procedure for a vote of confidence in India and France, consider the following statements:
• In both India and France, the head of state is immune from the vote of confidence process.
• A successful motion of no-confidence in France requires an absolute majority of the total members of the National Assembly, whereas in India, it requires a simple majority of members present and voting in the Lok Sabha.
• The Prime Minister of France can link the passage of a bill to a confidence vote, a procedural tool not available to the Indian Prime Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: C
• In India’s parliamentary system, the President (Head of State) is not part of the executive responsible to the Parliament, hence is not subject to a confidence vote. In France’s semi-presidential system, the directly elected President (Head of State) remains in office regardless of whether the government loses a confidence vote. The vote of confidence is faced by the Prime Minister and the cabinet.
• The majority requirement is a key distinction. In India, under Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion needs the support of a simple majority of members present and voting. In France, Article 49(2) mandates that a motion of censure must be passed by an absolute majority of all members of the National Assembly, making it significantly harder to topple a government.
France’s Constitution, under Article 49-3, provides a unique tool for the executive. The Prime Minister can make the adoption of a bill dependent on a confidence vote. If no motion of censure is passed in response, the bill is considered adopted. This power to bypass a direct vote on the bill itself is a feature of the “rationalised” parliamentarism of the Fifth Republic and is not present in the Indian system.
Solution: C
• In India’s parliamentary system, the President (Head of State) is not part of the executive responsible to the Parliament, hence is not subject to a confidence vote. In France’s semi-presidential system, the directly elected President (Head of State) remains in office regardless of whether the government loses a confidence vote. The vote of confidence is faced by the Prime Minister and the cabinet.
• The majority requirement is a key distinction. In India, under Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion needs the support of a simple majority of members present and voting. In France, Article 49(2) mandates that a motion of censure must be passed by an absolute majority of all members of the National Assembly, making it significantly harder to topple a government.
France’s Constitution, under Article 49-3, provides a unique tool for the executive. The Prime Minister can make the adoption of a bill dependent on a confidence vote. If no motion of censure is passed in response, the bill is considered adopted. This power to bypass a direct vote on the bill itself is a feature of the “rationalised” parliamentarism of the Fifth Republic and is not present in the Indian system.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Angikaar 2025 Campaign, consider the following statements: It is a convergence-focused campaign operating under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban 2.0. The campaign’s target is limited to facilitating verification of applications for new houses. It employs a multi-pronged outreach strategy including door-to-door visits and organizing loan melas. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Angikaar 2025 Campaign is an initiative under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0. It is described as a last-mile outreach initiative that focuses on convergence with other social welfare programmes to ensure beneficiaries receive a holistic set of benefits along with their housing. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s aim is broader than just application verification. Its objectives include creating widespread awareness, expediting the completion of already sanctioned houses, and helping to achieve the target of delivering an additional one crore houses sanctioned under PMAY-U 2.0. It aims to bridge implementation gaps, not just process new applications. Statement 3 is correct. The campaign uses various outreach methods to connect with beneficiaries. The features explicitly include door-to-door campaigns, loan melas, cultural events, and the organization of “PM Awas Mela – Shehri” to ensure maximum reach and engagement at the grassroots level. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Angikaar 2025 Campaign is an initiative under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0. It is described as a last-mile outreach initiative that focuses on convergence with other social welfare programmes to ensure beneficiaries receive a holistic set of benefits along with their housing. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s aim is broader than just application verification. Its objectives include creating widespread awareness, expediting the completion of already sanctioned houses, and helping to achieve the target of delivering an additional one crore houses sanctioned under PMAY-U 2.0. It aims to bridge implementation gaps, not just process new applications. Statement 3 is correct. The campaign uses various outreach methods to connect with beneficiaries. The features explicitly include door-to-door campaigns, loan melas, cultural events, and the organization of “PM Awas Mela – Shehri” to ensure maximum reach and engagement at the grassroots level.
#### 5. Question
With reference to the Angikaar 2025 Campaign, consider the following statements:
• It is a convergence-focused campaign operating under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban 2.0.
• The campaign’s target is limited to facilitating verification of applications for new houses.
• It employs a multi-pronged outreach strategy including door-to-door visits and organizing loan melas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is correct. The Angikaar 2025 Campaign is an initiative under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0. It is described as a last-mile outreach initiative that focuses on convergence with other social welfare programmes to ensure beneficiaries receive a holistic set of benefits along with their housing.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s aim is broader than just application verification. Its objectives include creating widespread awareness, expediting the completion of already sanctioned houses, and helping to achieve the target of delivering an additional one crore houses sanctioned under PMAY-U 2.0. It aims to bridge implementation gaps, not just process new applications.
Statement 3 is correct. The campaign uses various outreach methods to connect with beneficiaries. The features explicitly include door-to-door campaigns, loan melas, cultural events, and the organization of “PM Awas Mela – Shehri” to ensure maximum reach and engagement at the grassroots level.
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is correct. The Angikaar 2025 Campaign is an initiative under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0. It is described as a last-mile outreach initiative that focuses on convergence with other social welfare programmes to ensure beneficiaries receive a holistic set of benefits along with their housing.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign’s aim is broader than just application verification. Its objectives include creating widespread awareness, expediting the completion of already sanctioned houses, and helping to achieve the target of delivering an additional one crore houses sanctioned under PMAY-U 2.0. It aims to bridge implementation gaps, not just process new applications.
Statement 3 is correct. The campaign uses various outreach methods to connect with beneficiaries. The features explicitly include door-to-door campaigns, loan melas, cultural events, and the organization of “PM Awas Mela – Shehri” to ensure maximum reach and engagement at the grassroots level.
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