UPSC Editorials Quiz : 10 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit. Statement-I: The Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit emphasizes a strategic shift from focusing merely on food availability to enhancing food literacy and promoting healthy eating habits. Statement-II: A significant outcome of the N4G Summit has been the renewed commitment to promote bio-diverse and sustainable diets, recognizing the interconnectedness of food systems, environment, and nutritional outcomes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The N4G Summit aims “To emphasize a shift beyond food availability to improving food literacy and healthy eating habits, especially among children.” This indicates a clear strategic direction towards demand-side interventions and behavioural change, complementing supply-side measures related to food access. Statement-II is correct. Among the listed outcomes of the N4G Summit is the “Renewed commitment to promote bio-diverse and sustainable diets.” This reflects a growing global understanding that nutritional well-being is linked to the sustainability and diversity of food systems, which also has implications for environmental health and resilience. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The N4G Summit aims “To emphasize a shift beyond food availability to improving food literacy and healthy eating habits, especially among children.” This indicates a clear strategic direction towards demand-side interventions and behavioural change, complementing supply-side measures related to food access. Statement-II is correct. Among the listed outcomes of the N4G Summit is the “Renewed commitment to promote bio-diverse and sustainable diets.” This reflects a growing global understanding that nutritional well-being is linked to the sustainability and diversity of food systems, which also has implications for environmental health and resilience.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit.

Statement-I: The Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit emphasizes a strategic shift from focusing merely on food availability to enhancing food literacy and promoting healthy eating habits.

Statement-II: A significant outcome of the N4G Summit has been the renewed commitment to promote bio-diverse and sustainable diets, recognizing the interconnectedness of food systems, environment, and nutritional outcomes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

Statement-I is correct. The N4G Summit aims “To emphasize a shift beyond food availability to improving food literacy and healthy eating habits, especially among children.” This indicates a clear strategic direction towards demand-side interventions and behavioural change, complementing supply-side measures related to food access.

Statement-II is correct. Among the listed outcomes of the N4G Summit is the “Renewed commitment to promote bio-diverse and sustainable diets.” This reflects a growing global understanding that nutritional well-being is linked to the sustainability and diversity of food systems, which also has implications for environmental health and resilience.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha: The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President of India. There is a well-established parliamentary convention, though not legally mandated, that the post of Deputy Speaker is offered to a member of the opposition party. The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker and is responsible to the Speaker for their functions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the President of India. This is a procedural aspect managed within the House itself. Statement 2 is correct. There is indeed a long-standing parliamentary convention in India that the position of the Deputy Speaker is offered to a member from an opposition party. This convention is aimed at fostering bipartisan cooperation, ensuring institutional balance, and building trust within the legislature. However, it is crucial to note that this is a convention and not a requirement stipulated by the Constitution or any statute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not subordinate to the Speaker. While the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker in their absence and presides over the House, they are directly responsible to the Lok Sabha itself, not to the Speaker. This independence is a key feature of the office, ensuring that the Deputy Speaker can discharge their duties impartially. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the President of India. This is a procedural aspect managed within the House itself. Statement 2 is correct. There is indeed a long-standing parliamentary convention in India that the position of the Deputy Speaker is offered to a member from an opposition party. This convention is aimed at fostering bipartisan cooperation, ensuring institutional balance, and building trust within the legislature. However, it is crucial to note that this is a convention and not a requirement stipulated by the Constitution or any statute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not subordinate to the Speaker. While the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker in their absence and presides over the House, they are directly responsible to the Lok Sabha itself, not to the Speaker. This independence is a key feature of the office, ensuring that the Deputy Speaker can discharge their duties impartially.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

• The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President of India.

• There is a well-established parliamentary convention, though not legally mandated, that the post of Deputy Speaker is offered to a member of the opposition party.

• The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker and is responsible to the Speaker for their functions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the President of India. This is a procedural aspect managed within the House itself.

Statement 2 is correct. There is indeed a long-standing parliamentary convention in India that the position of the Deputy Speaker is offered to a member from an opposition party. This convention is aimed at fostering bipartisan cooperation, ensuring institutional balance, and building trust within the legislature. However, it is crucial to note that this is a convention and not a requirement stipulated by the Constitution or any statute.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not subordinate to the Speaker. While the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker in their absence and presides over the House, they are directly responsible to the Lok Sabha itself, not to the Speaker. This independence is a key feature of the office, ensuring that the Deputy Speaker can discharge their duties impartially.

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Caste Census in India, consider the following statements: The first comprehensive and synchronous caste census across British India was initiated in 1881 and continued decennially until 1931. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) conducted in 2011 was the first exercise in independent India to collect data on caste status for the entire population. Article 340 of the Constitution directly empowers the National Commission for Backward Classes to conduct a nationwide caste census. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The practice of conducting a census that included caste enumeration began in British India, with the first synchronous decennial census occurring in 1881. This practice of collecting caste data for all communities continued in subsequent censuses up to 1931. These historical records provide some of the last comprehensive datasets on caste demographics across the country. Statement 2 is correct. After independence, the Government of India decided to cease the general enumeration of castes in the regular decennial censuses from 1951 onwards, with the exception of data for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was a distinct exercise aimed at generating data on various socio-economic indicators, and it included a component for collecting self-declared caste status for the entire population. However, the raw caste data collected under SECC 2011 has not been officially released in its entirety by the central government, citing complexities and inaccuracies, though socio-economic data from SECC has been used for various welfare schemes. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 340 does not empower the National Commission for Backward Classes (or any such body) to conduct a nationwide caste census itself. The authority to conduct a census rests with the Union Government under the Census Act, 1948, stemming from its powers under Article 246 and the Union List. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The practice of conducting a census that included caste enumeration began in British India, with the first synchronous decennial census occurring in 1881. This practice of collecting caste data for all communities continued in subsequent censuses up to 1931. These historical records provide some of the last comprehensive datasets on caste demographics across the country. Statement 2 is correct. After independence, the Government of India decided to cease the general enumeration of castes in the regular decennial censuses from 1951 onwards, with the exception of data for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was a distinct exercise aimed at generating data on various socio-economic indicators, and it included a component for collecting self-declared caste status for the entire population. However, the raw caste data collected under SECC 2011 has not been officially released in its entirety by the central government, citing complexities and inaccuracies, though socio-economic data from SECC has been used for various welfare schemes. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 340 does not empower the National Commission for Backward Classes (or any such body) to conduct a nationwide caste census itself. The authority to conduct a census rests with the Union Government under the Census Act, 1948, stemming from its powers under Article 246 and the Union List.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Caste Census in India, consider the following statements:

• The first comprehensive and synchronous caste census across British India was initiated in 1881 and continued decennially until 1931.

• The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) conducted in 2011 was the first exercise in independent India to collect data on caste status for the entire population.

• Article 340 of the Constitution directly empowers the National Commission for Backward Classes to conduct a nationwide caste census.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. The practice of conducting a census that included caste enumeration began in British India, with the first synchronous decennial census occurring in 1881. This practice of collecting caste data for all communities continued in subsequent censuses up to 1931. These historical records provide some of the last comprehensive datasets on caste demographics across the country.

Statement 2 is correct. After independence, the Government of India decided to cease the general enumeration of castes in the regular decennial censuses from 1951 onwards, with the exception of data for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was a distinct exercise aimed at generating data on various socio-economic indicators, and it included a component for collecting self-declared caste status for the entire population. However, the raw caste data collected under SECC 2011 has not been officially released in its entirety by the central government, citing complexities and inaccuracies, though socio-economic data from SECC has been used for various welfare schemes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 340 does not empower the National Commission for Backward Classes (or any such body) to conduct a nationwide caste census itself. The authority to conduct a census rests with the Union Government under the Census Act, 1948, stemming from its powers under Article 246 and the Union List.

Solution: b)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding efforts to combat Bonded Labour in India: The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, not only criminalised all forms of bonded labour but also statutorily extinguished all obligations to repay any bonded debt. The revised Centrally Sponsored Plan Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers provides for financial assistance that is significantly higher if the rescued bonded labourer is a woman or a minor. Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels, mandated by the 1976 Act, are primarily composed of government officials with no provision for social worker participation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, is a comprehensive legislation that declares the bonded labour system abolished and illegal. A crucial aspect of this Act is Section 6, which states that every obligation of a bonded labourer to repay any bonded debt, or such part of any bonded debt as remains unsatisfied immediately before the commencement of the Act, shall be deemed to have been extinguished. This provision was critical in freeing labourers from often intergenerational cycles of debt. Statement 2 is correct. The Centrally Sponsored Plan Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers was revised in 2016. Under this revised scheme, the quantum of financial assistance provided for rehabilitation varies. For adult male beneficiaries, the assistance is ₹1 lakh. However, for special category beneficiaries, such as children (including orphans or those rescued from trafficking or sexual exploitation), women, and transgender individuals, the assistance is higher. This differentiated assistance recognizes their increased vulnerability. Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 13 of the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, mandates the constitution of Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels. Section 14 specifies the composition of these committees. While they include government officials (like the District Magistrate or a nominee as Chairman, and officials dealing with labour, rural development, etc.), they also explicitly require the inclusion of three persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes residing in the district/sub-division, and two social workers resident in the district/sub-division, to be nominated by the District Magistrate. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, is a comprehensive legislation that declares the bonded labour system abolished and illegal. A crucial aspect of this Act is Section 6, which states that every obligation of a bonded labourer to repay any bonded debt, or such part of any bonded debt as remains unsatisfied immediately before the commencement of the Act, shall be deemed to have been extinguished. This provision was critical in freeing labourers from often intergenerational cycles of debt. Statement 2 is correct. The Centrally Sponsored Plan Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers was revised in 2016. Under this revised scheme, the quantum of financial assistance provided for rehabilitation varies. For adult male beneficiaries, the assistance is ₹1 lakh. However, for special category beneficiaries, such as children (including orphans or those rescued from trafficking or sexual exploitation), women, and transgender individuals, the assistance is higher. This differentiated assistance recognizes their increased vulnerability. Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 13 of the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, mandates the constitution of Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels. Section 14 specifies the composition of these committees. While they include government officials (like the District Magistrate or a nominee as Chairman, and officials dealing with labour, rural development, etc.), they also explicitly require the inclusion of three persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes residing in the district/sub-division, and two social workers resident in the district/sub-division, to be nominated by the District Magistrate.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding efforts to combat Bonded Labour in India:

• The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, not only criminalised all forms of bonded labour but also statutorily extinguished all obligations to repay any bonded debt.

• The revised Centrally Sponsored Plan Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers provides for financial assistance that is significantly higher if the rescued bonded labourer is a woman or a minor.

• Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels, mandated by the 1976 Act, are primarily composed of government officials with no provision for social worker participation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, is a comprehensive legislation that declares the bonded labour system abolished and illegal. A crucial aspect of this Act is Section 6, which states that every obligation of a bonded labourer to repay any bonded debt, or such part of any bonded debt as remains unsatisfied immediately before the commencement of the Act, shall be deemed to have been extinguished. This provision was critical in freeing labourers from often intergenerational cycles of debt.

Statement 2 is correct. The Centrally Sponsored Plan Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers was revised in 2016. Under this revised scheme, the quantum of financial assistance provided for rehabilitation varies. For adult male beneficiaries, the assistance is ₹1 lakh. However, for special category beneficiaries, such as children (including orphans or those rescued from trafficking or sexual exploitation), women, and transgender individuals, the assistance is higher. This differentiated assistance recognizes their increased vulnerability.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 13 of the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, mandates the constitution of Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels. Section 14 specifies the composition of these committees. While they include government officials (like the District Magistrate or a nominee as Chairman, and officials dealing with labour, rural development, etc.), they also explicitly require the inclusion of three persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes residing in the district/sub-division, and two social workers resident in the district/sub-division, to be nominated by the District Magistrate.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Natural Hydrogen: It is considered a primary energy source because it is directly extracted from geological formations without requiring a manufacturing process like electrolysis. The estimated production cost of natural hydrogen is significantly lower than that of green hydrogen produced via electrolysis using renewable energy. Serpentinisation, a key process for natural hydrogen generation, typically occurs in sedimentary basins rich in hydrocarbons. Natural hydrogen extraction always involves fracking techniques similar to those used for shale gas. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Natural hydrogen (also known as “white” or “gold” hydrogen) is free molecular hydrogen (H2) found naturally in underground deposits. It is extracted directly, much like natural gas, making it a primary energy source, unlike green or blue hydrogen which are energy carriers manufactured from other sources (water or fossil fuels, respectively). Statement 2 is correct. Current estimates suggest that natural hydrogen could potentially be produced at a cost as low as $1/kg or even less. This is substantially cheaper than green hydrogen, which typically costs around $3-7/kg depending on renewable electricity prices and electrolyzer costs, and also cheaper than grey/blue hydrogen derived from fossil fuels. Statement 3 is incorrect. Serpentinisation, a major process for natural hydrogen generation, involves the reaction of water with ultramafic rocks (like peridotites and dunites) which are rich in minerals such as olivine and pyroxene. These rocks are typically found in ophiolite belts, continental rifts, and mid-ocean ridges, not primarily in sedimentary basins rich in hydrocarbons. While hydrogen can be found in various geological settings, serpentinisation is specifically linked to these iron and magnesium-rich igneous rocks. Statement 4 is incorrect. The extraction of natural hydrogen involves drilling boreholes into identified underground hydrogen pockets, similar to conventional gas drilling. However, it does not necessarily or always involve fracking (hydraulic fracturing). Fracking is a specific well stimulation technique used to extract resources from low-permeability formations like shale. The need for such techniques would depend on the specific geology of the natural hydrogen reservoir. Current known accumulations, like the one in Mali, are tapped using conventional drilling. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Natural hydrogen (also known as “white” or “gold” hydrogen) is free molecular hydrogen (H2) found naturally in underground deposits. It is extracted directly, much like natural gas, making it a primary energy source, unlike green or blue hydrogen which are energy carriers manufactured from other sources (water or fossil fuels, respectively). Statement 2 is correct. Current estimates suggest that natural hydrogen could potentially be produced at a cost as low as $1/kg or even less. This is substantially cheaper than green hydrogen, which typically costs around $3-7/kg depending on renewable electricity prices and electrolyzer costs, and also cheaper than grey/blue hydrogen derived from fossil fuels. Statement 3 is incorrect. Serpentinisation, a major process for natural hydrogen generation, involves the reaction of water with ultramafic rocks (like peridotites and dunites) which are rich in minerals such as olivine and pyroxene. These rocks are typically found in ophiolite belts, continental rifts, and mid-ocean ridges, not primarily in sedimentary basins rich in hydrocarbons. While hydrogen can be found in various geological settings, serpentinisation is specifically linked to these iron and magnesium-rich igneous rocks. Statement 4 is incorrect. The extraction of natural hydrogen involves drilling boreholes into identified underground hydrogen pockets, similar to conventional gas drilling. However, it does not necessarily or always involve fracking (hydraulic fracturing). Fracking is a specific well stimulation technique used to extract resources from low-permeability formations like shale. The need for such techniques would depend on the specific geology of the natural hydrogen reservoir. Current known accumulations, like the one in Mali, are tapped using conventional drilling.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Natural Hydrogen:

• It is considered a primary energy source because it is directly extracted from geological formations without requiring a manufacturing process like electrolysis.

• The estimated production cost of natural hydrogen is significantly lower than that of green hydrogen produced via electrolysis using renewable energy.

• Serpentinisation, a key process for natural hydrogen generation, typically occurs in sedimentary basins rich in hydrocarbons.

• Natural hydrogen extraction always involves fracking techniques similar to those used for shale gas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Natural hydrogen (also known as “white” or “gold” hydrogen) is free molecular hydrogen (H2) found naturally in underground deposits. It is extracted directly, much like natural gas, making it a primary energy source, unlike green or blue hydrogen which are energy carriers manufactured from other sources (water or fossil fuels, respectively).

Statement 2 is correct. Current estimates suggest that natural hydrogen could potentially be produced at a cost as low as $1/kg or even less. This is substantially cheaper than green hydrogen, which typically costs around $3-7/kg depending on renewable electricity prices and electrolyzer costs, and also cheaper than grey/blue hydrogen derived from fossil fuels.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Serpentinisation, a major process for natural hydrogen generation, involves the reaction of water with ultramafic rocks (like peridotites and dunites) which are rich in minerals such as olivine and pyroxene. These rocks are typically found in ophiolite belts, continental rifts, and mid-ocean ridges, not primarily in sedimentary basins rich in hydrocarbons. While hydrogen can be found in various geological settings, serpentinisation is specifically linked to these iron and magnesium-rich igneous rocks.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The extraction of natural hydrogen involves drilling boreholes into identified underground hydrogen pockets, similar to conventional gas drilling. However, it does not necessarily or always involve fracking (hydraulic fracturing). Fracking is a specific well stimulation technique used to extract resources from low-permeability formations like shale. The need for such techniques would depend on the specific geology of the natural hydrogen reservoir. Current known accumulations, like the one in Mali, are tapped using conventional drilling.

Solution: b)

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE