UPSC Editorials Quiz : 10 June 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the factors influencing the Southwest Monsoon, consider the following statements: The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a stationary high-pressure system over the southern Indian Ocean that pushes moist winds towards India. The Somali Jet is a strong, low-level cross-equatorial wind that slows down the advance of monsoon currents over the Indian subcontinent. A persistent heat low over Pakistan and Northwest India helps in creating a suction effect for moist monsoonal air. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is not a stationary high-pressure system but an eastward-moving pulse of clouds and rainfall near the equator that influences tropical weather. The stationary high-pressure system described is the Mascarene High, which is a separate and distinct factor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Somali Jet is a strong, low-level cross-equatorial wind, but it accelerates, not slows down, the arrival of monsoon currents. The strengthening of the Somali Jet is a key dynamic feature that vigorously transports moisture from the Indian Ocean to the Indian subcontinent, playing a crucial role in the monsoon’s onset and intensity. Statement 3 is correct. The intense heating of the landmass in Pakistan and Northwest India during the summer creates a region of intense low pressure, known as a heat low. This low-pressure system acts like a vacuum, creating a steep pressure gradient that pulls the moisture-laden winds from the high-pressure regions over the oceans towards the land, which is a fundamental driver of the monsoon. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is not a stationary high-pressure system but an eastward-moving pulse of clouds and rainfall near the equator that influences tropical weather. The stationary high-pressure system described is the Mascarene High, which is a separate and distinct factor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Somali Jet is a strong, low-level cross-equatorial wind, but it accelerates, not slows down, the arrival of monsoon currents. The strengthening of the Somali Jet is a key dynamic feature that vigorously transports moisture from the Indian Ocean to the Indian subcontinent, playing a crucial role in the monsoon’s onset and intensity. Statement 3 is correct. The intense heating of the landmass in Pakistan and Northwest India during the summer creates a region of intense low pressure, known as a heat low. This low-pressure system acts like a vacuum, creating a steep pressure gradient that pulls the moisture-laden winds from the high-pressure regions over the oceans towards the land, which is a fundamental driver of the monsoon.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the factors influencing the Southwest Monsoon, consider the following statements:

• The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a stationary high-pressure system over the southern Indian Ocean that pushes moist winds towards India.

• The Somali Jet is a strong, low-level cross-equatorial wind that slows down the advance of monsoon currents over the Indian subcontinent.

• A persistent heat low over Pakistan and Northwest India helps in creating a suction effect for moist monsoonal air.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is not a stationary high-pressure system but an eastward-moving pulse of clouds and rainfall near the equator that influences tropical weather. The stationary high-pressure system described is the Mascarene High, which is a separate and distinct factor.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Somali Jet is a strong, low-level cross-equatorial wind, but it accelerates, not slows down, the arrival of monsoon currents. The strengthening of the Somali Jet is a key dynamic feature that vigorously transports moisture from the Indian Ocean to the Indian subcontinent, playing a crucial role in the monsoon’s onset and intensity.

• Statement 3 is correct. The intense heating of the landmass in Pakistan and Northwest India during the summer creates a region of intense low pressure, known as a heat low. This low-pressure system acts like a vacuum, creating a steep pressure gradient that pulls the moisture-laden winds from the high-pressure regions over the oceans towards the land, which is a fundamental driver of the monsoon.

Solution: a)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the recent monetary policy measures of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI): The RBI reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points in 2025. The repo rate was increased by the Monetary Policy Committee to control inflation. The RBI has revised the inflation estimate for FY 2025–26 downward. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. In 2025, the Reserve Bank of India reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points, a significant step aimed at enhancing liquidity in the banking system. This move freed up more funds for banks to lend, signalling a shift toward growth-supportive monetary policy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to tightening monetary stance, the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) actually cut the repo rate to stimulate economic growth amidst a benign inflation outlook. The decision reflected a calibrated approach focused on reviving investment and consumption. Statement 3 is correct. The RBI revised its inflation projection for FY 2025–26 downward, to around 3.7%, citing lower food inflation, easing global commodity prices, and improved supply-side conditions. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. In 2025, the Reserve Bank of India reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points, a significant step aimed at enhancing liquidity in the banking system. This move freed up more funds for banks to lend, signalling a shift toward growth-supportive monetary policy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to tightening monetary stance, the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) actually cut the repo rate to stimulate economic growth amidst a benign inflation outlook. The decision reflected a calibrated approach focused on reviving investment and consumption. Statement 3 is correct. The RBI revised its inflation projection for FY 2025–26 downward, to around 3.7%, citing lower food inflation, easing global commodity prices, and improved supply-side conditions.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the recent monetary policy measures of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

• The RBI reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points in 2025.

• The repo rate was increased by the Monetary Policy Committee to control inflation.

• The RBI has revised the inflation estimate for FY 2025–26 downward.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. In 2025, the Reserve Bank of India reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points, a significant step aimed at enhancing liquidity in the banking system. This move freed up more funds for banks to lend, signalling a shift toward growth-supportive monetary policy.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to tightening monetary stance, the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) actually cut the repo rate to stimulate economic growth amidst a benign inflation outlook. The decision reflected a calibrated approach focused on reviving investment and consumption.

• Statement 3 is correct. The RBI revised its inflation projection for FY 2025–26 downward, to around 3.7%, citing lower food inflation, easing global commodity prices, and improved supply-side conditions.

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following best explains the RBI’s rationale for shifting its monetary policy stance from accommodative to neutral in 2025? a) Rising inflation due to higher crude oil prices b) Indications of overheating in the Indian economy c) Achieving short-term price stability while leaving room for growth stimulus d) Reduction in fiscal deficit targets by the government Correct Solution: c) After implementing a series of rate cuts to revive domestic demand, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2025 shifted its monetary policy stance from accommodative to neutral. This change reflects a strategic balancing act. On one hand, inflation levels had moderated, providing scope for continued support to economic activity. On the other, global uncertainties—including volatile commodity prices, geopolitical tensions, and uneven growth recoveries—required the central bank to adopt a more measured approach. By moving to a neutral stance, the RBI signaled that further rate actions would depend on incoming data rather than a pre-committed easing path. This flexibility allows the central bank to respond promptly to inflation risks while preserving space for growth-supportive measures if needed. It marks a transition toward policy normalization without undermining recovery momentum, thereby aligning with the dual objectives of price stability and sustainable growth. Incorrect Solution: c) After implementing a series of rate cuts to revive domestic demand, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2025 shifted its monetary policy stance from accommodative to neutral. This change reflects a strategic balancing act. On one hand, inflation levels had moderated, providing scope for continued support to economic activity. On the other, global uncertainties—including volatile commodity prices, geopolitical tensions, and uneven growth recoveries—required the central bank to adopt a more measured approach. By moving to a neutral stance, the RBI signaled that further rate actions would depend on incoming data rather than a pre-committed easing path. This flexibility allows the central bank to respond promptly to inflation risks while preserving space for growth-supportive measures if needed. It marks a transition toward policy normalization without undermining recovery momentum, thereby aligning with the dual objectives of price stability and sustainable growth.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best explains the RBI’s rationale for shifting its monetary policy stance from accommodative to neutral in 2025?

• a) Rising inflation due to higher crude oil prices

• b) Indications of overheating in the Indian economy

• c) Achieving short-term price stability while leaving room for growth stimulus

• d) Reduction in fiscal deficit targets by the government

Solution: c)

• After implementing a series of rate cuts to revive domestic demand, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2025 shifted its monetary policy stance from accommodative to neutral. This change reflects a strategic balancing act.

• On one hand, inflation levels had moderated, providing scope for continued support to economic activity. On the other, global uncertainties—including volatile commodity prices, geopolitical tensions, and uneven growth recoveries—required the central bank to adopt a more measured approach.

• By moving to a neutral stance, the RBI signaled that further rate actions would depend on incoming data rather than a pre-committed easing path. This flexibility allows the central bank to respond promptly to inflation risks while preserving space for growth-supportive measures if needed.

• It marks a transition toward policy normalization without undermining recovery momentum, thereby aligning with the dual objectives of price stability and sustainable growth.

Solution: c)

• It marks a transition toward policy normalization without undermining recovery momentum, thereby aligning with the dual objectives of price stability and sustainable growth.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Regarding the qualifications and disqualifications for Rajya Sabha membership, consider the following statements: To be eligible, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age. Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a state government is a ground for disqualification. A member can be disqualified if they are declared to be of unsound mind by a court. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest. Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest. Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the qualifications and disqualifications for Rajya Sabha membership, consider the following statements:

• To be eligible, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.

• Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a state government is a ground for disqualification.

• A member can be disqualified if they are declared to be of unsound mind by a court.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest.

• Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Regarding the new gene-editing treatment for CPS1 deficiency, consider the following statements: The treatment utilizes the traditional CRISPR-Cas9 method, which requires the insertion of foreign DNA to correct the genetic defect. Due to its innovative nature and the use of common components, the treatment is a low-cost, commercially viable option for pharmaceutical firms. The procedure involves making multiple double-strand cuts in the DNA to ensure the faulty base is completely removed. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The treatment uses an evolved form of CRISPR known as base editing. A key feature of this technique is that it does not require the insertion of external or foreign DNA. It works by chemically modifying an existing nucleotide base, which is a more subtle and direct correction. Statement 2 is incorrect. High cost and low pharmaceutical incentive acts as major limitations. The treatment costs hundreds of thousands of dollars and is customized for each patient’s unique genetic mutation, making it difficult to scale and not commercially viable for mass production by pharmaceutical companies. Statement 3 is incorrect. The core principle of base editing, which distinguishes it from traditional CRISPR, is that it avoids making double-strand cuts in the DNA. It is described as being analogous to a “pencil and eraser” precisely because it chemically alters a single base on a single strand without breaking the DNA’s structural backbone. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The treatment uses an evolved form of CRISPR known as base editing. A key feature of this technique is that it does not require the insertion of external or foreign DNA. It works by chemically modifying an existing nucleotide base, which is a more subtle and direct correction. Statement 2 is incorrect. High cost and low pharmaceutical incentive acts as major limitations. The treatment costs hundreds of thousands of dollars and is customized for each patient’s unique genetic mutation, making it difficult to scale and not commercially viable for mass production by pharmaceutical companies. Statement 3 is incorrect. The core principle of base editing, which distinguishes it from traditional CRISPR, is that it avoids making double-strand cuts in the DNA. It is described as being analogous to a “pencil and eraser” precisely because it chemically alters a single base on a single strand without breaking the DNA’s structural backbone.

#### 5. Question

Regarding the new gene-editing treatment for CPS1 deficiency, consider the following statements:

• The treatment utilizes the traditional CRISPR-Cas9 method, which requires the insertion of foreign DNA to correct the genetic defect.

• Due to its innovative nature and the use of common components, the treatment is a low-cost, commercially viable option for pharmaceutical firms.

• The procedure involves making multiple double-strand cuts in the DNA to ensure the faulty base is completely removed.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The treatment uses an evolved form of CRISPR known as base editing. A key feature of this technique is that it does not require the insertion of external or foreign DNA. It works by chemically modifying an existing nucleotide base, which is a more subtle and direct correction.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. High cost and low pharmaceutical incentive acts as major limitations. The treatment costs hundreds of thousands of dollars and is customized for each patient’s unique genetic mutation, making it difficult to scale and not commercially viable for mass production by pharmaceutical companies.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The core principle of base editing, which distinguishes it from traditional CRISPR, is that it avoids making double-strand cuts in the DNA. It is described as being analogous to a “pencil and eraser” precisely because it chemically alters a single base on a single strand without breaking the DNA’s structural backbone.

Solution: d)

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