UPSC Editorials Quiz : 10 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding PM-PRANAM scheme: Statement I: The Government of India has launched the PM-PRANAM scheme to incentivize states to reduce their consumption of chemical fertilizers. Statement II: The scheme operates on the principle of fiscal federalism, where states that achieve reduction targets are rewarded with a portion of the resultant subsidy savings, which they can use for promoting sustainable agriculture at the local level. Statement III: The scheme mandates a complete ban on the use of urea and DAP in states that fail to meet their reduction targets for two consecutive years. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I (c) Only Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. PM-PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme is designed to incentivize States and Union Territories to promote the balanced use of fertilizers and reduce their overall consumption of chemical fertilizers. Statement II is correct. This statement explains the operational philosophy of the scheme. It is based on the principle of cooperative and fiscal federalism. It uses a positive incentive mechanism rather than a punitive one. States are rewarded with 50% of the fertilizer subsidy they save, and these funds can be utilized for activities at the local level, such as asset creation for alternate fertilizer production and rewarding farmers and panchayats. This empowers states and encourages bottom-up participation in sustainable agriculture. Statement III is incorrect. The PM-PRANAM scheme is entirely incentive-based. There is no provision for any punitive measures like a ban on fertilizers for non-performing states. Such a drastic step would be counterproductive and could jeopardize food security. The scheme’s design is to encourage and reward positive action, not to punish inaction. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. PM-PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme is designed to incentivize States and Union Territories to promote the balanced use of fertilizers and reduce their overall consumption of chemical fertilizers. Statement II is correct. This statement explains the operational philosophy of the scheme. It is based on the principle of cooperative and fiscal federalism. It uses a positive incentive mechanism rather than a punitive one. States are rewarded with 50% of the fertilizer subsidy they save, and these funds can be utilized for activities at the local level, such as asset creation for alternate fertilizer production and rewarding farmers and panchayats. This empowers states and encourages bottom-up participation in sustainable agriculture. Statement III is incorrect. The PM-PRANAM scheme is entirely incentive-based. There is no provision for any punitive measures like a ban on fertilizers for non-performing states. Such a drastic step would be counterproductive and could jeopardize food security. The scheme’s design is to encourage and reward positive action, not to punish inaction.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PM-PRANAM scheme:

Statement I: The Government of India has launched the PM-PRANAM scheme to incentivize states to reduce their consumption of chemical fertilizers.

Statement II: The scheme operates on the principle of fiscal federalism, where states that achieve reduction targets are rewarded with a portion of the resultant subsidy savings, which they can use for promoting sustainable agriculture at the local level.

Statement III: The scheme mandates a complete ban on the use of urea and DAP in states that fail to meet their reduction targets for two consecutive years.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I

• (c) Only Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. PM-PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme is designed to incentivize States and Union Territories to promote the balanced use of fertilizers and reduce their overall consumption of chemical fertilizers.

• Statement II is correct. This statement explains the operational philosophy of the scheme. It is based on the principle of cooperative and fiscal federalism. It uses a positive incentive mechanism rather than a punitive one. States are rewarded with 50% of the fertilizer subsidy they save, and these funds can be utilized for activities at the local level, such as asset creation for alternate fertilizer production and rewarding farmers and panchayats. This empowers states and encourages bottom-up participation in sustainable agriculture.

• Statement III is incorrect. The PM-PRANAM scheme is entirely incentive-based. There is no provision for any punitive measures like a ban on fertilizers for non-performing states. Such a drastic step would be counterproductive and could jeopardize food security. The scheme’s design is to encourage and reward positive action, not to punish inaction.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following statements accurately describe the financial assistance mechanisms under the National Livestock Mission (NLM)? It provides a 100% capital subsidy to private entrepreneurs for establishing feed and fodder value addition units. The livestock insurance component of the mission is implemented on a 90:10 cost-sharing basis between the Centre and all States. The sub-mission on feed and fodder development provides 100% incentivization for quality fodder seed production only to Central Government institutions. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None Correct Solution: D The National Livestock Mission (NLM) has been realigned to focus on entrepreneurship development and enhancing the availability of feed, fodder, and insurance. Statement 1 is incorrect. The NLM provides a one-time 50% capital subsidy, not 100%. This subsidy, capped at ₹50 lakh, is available to individuals, SHGs, FPOs, and other eligible entities for setting up value addition units for hay, silage, Total Mixed Ration (TMR), etc. The 50% subsidy model encourages private investment while sharing the financial risk, which is a common policy tool. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cost-sharing basis for the livestock insurance component is differentiated. It is on a 60:40 basis for general States and a 90:10 basis for North-Eastern and Himalayan States. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sub-mission on feed and fodder development does provide 100% incentivization for quality fodder seed production, but this is available to both Central and State Government institutions, not just Central ones. This broadens the scope of implementation and leverages state-level agricultural infrastructure. Incorrect Solution: D The National Livestock Mission (NLM) has been realigned to focus on entrepreneurship development and enhancing the availability of feed, fodder, and insurance. Statement 1 is incorrect. The NLM provides a one-time 50% capital subsidy, not 100%. This subsidy, capped at ₹50 lakh, is available to individuals, SHGs, FPOs, and other eligible entities for setting up value addition units for hay, silage, Total Mixed Ration (TMR), etc. The 50% subsidy model encourages private investment while sharing the financial risk, which is a common policy tool. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cost-sharing basis for the livestock insurance component is differentiated. It is on a 60:40 basis for general States and a 90:10 basis for North-Eastern and Himalayan States. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sub-mission on feed and fodder development does provide 100% incentivization for quality fodder seed production, but this is available to both Central and State Government institutions, not just Central ones. This broadens the scope of implementation and leverages state-level agricultural infrastructure.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe the financial assistance mechanisms under the National Livestock Mission (NLM)?

• It provides a 100% capital subsidy to private entrepreneurs for establishing feed and fodder value addition units.

• The livestock insurance component of the mission is implemented on a 90:10 cost-sharing basis between the Centre and all States.

• The sub-mission on feed and fodder development provides 100% incentivization for quality fodder seed production only to Central Government institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

The National Livestock Mission (NLM) has been realigned to focus on entrepreneurship development and enhancing the availability of feed, fodder, and insurance.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NLM provides a one-time 50% capital subsidy, not 100%. This subsidy, capped at ₹50 lakh, is available to individuals, SHGs, FPOs, and other eligible entities for setting up value addition units for hay, silage, Total Mixed Ration (TMR), etc. The 50% subsidy model encourages private investment while sharing the financial risk, which is a common policy tool.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The cost-sharing basis for the livestock insurance component is differentiated. It is on a 60:40 basis for general States and a 90:10 basis for North-Eastern and Himalayan States.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The sub-mission on feed and fodder development does provide 100% incentivization for quality fodder seed production, but this is available to both Central and State Government institutions, not just Central ones. This broadens the scope of implementation and leverages state-level agricultural infrastructure.

Solution: D

The National Livestock Mission (NLM) has been realigned to focus on entrepreneurship development and enhancing the availability of feed, fodder, and insurance.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It is a source of power to the legislature and a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. (b) It is justiciable, i.e., its provisions are enforceable in courts of law. (c) The Preamble has been amended only twice since its adoption. (d) The Supreme Court has held that secularism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Correct Solution: D Statement (a) is incorrect. The Preamble is neither a source of power for the legislature nor a restriction on its powers. It only serves as a guiding principle and an introduction to the Constitution. Statement (b) is incorrect. The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced in a court of law. It is primarily a tool for constitutional interpretation. Statement (c) is incorrect. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Statement (d) is correct. In the *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, the Supreme Court ruled that secularism is a fundamental component of the Constitution’s ‘basic structure’. This was further reinforced in subsequent judgments, establishing it as an unamendable feature. Incorrect Solution: D Statement (a) is incorrect. The Preamble is neither a source of power for the legislature nor a restriction on its powers. It only serves as a guiding principle and an introduction to the Constitution. Statement (b) is incorrect. The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced in a court of law. It is primarily a tool for constitutional interpretation. Statement (c) is incorrect. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Statement (d) is correct. In the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, the Supreme Court ruled that secularism is a fundamental component of the Constitution’s ‘basic structure’*. This was further reinforced in subsequent judgments, establishing it as an unamendable feature.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is a source of power to the legislature and a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.

• (b) It is justiciable, i.e., its provisions are enforceable in courts of law.

• (c) The Preamble has been amended only twice since its adoption.

• (d) The Supreme Court has held that secularism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Solution: D

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The Preamble is neither a source of power for the legislature nor a restriction on its powers. It only serves as a guiding principle and an introduction to the Constitution.

• Statement (b) is incorrect. The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced in a court of law. It is primarily a tool for constitutional interpretation.

• Statement (c) is incorrect. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

• Statement (d) is correct. In the *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, the Supreme Court ruled that secularism is a fundamental component of the Constitution’s ‘basic structure’*. This was further reinforced in subsequent judgments, establishing it as an unamendable feature.

Solution: D

• Statement (b) is incorrect. The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced in a court of law. It is primarily a tool for constitutional interpretation.

• Statement (c) is incorrect. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the World Bank’s Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, consider the following statements: India’s Gini Index improved, indicating a move towards more equitable income distribution. India is ranked as the most equal country globally, ahead of all European nations. The report uses a poverty threshold of $5.50/day to measure extreme poverty reduction. India’s Gini score places it in the “high inequality” category. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that India’s Gini Index showed a significant improvement, decreasing from 28.8 in 2011 to 25.5 in 2023. A lower Gini coefficient signifies lower inequality, so this trend indicates a more equitable distribution of income across the population over this period. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India’s ranking is impressive, it is not the most equal country globally. The report places India as the 4th most equal country, ranked behind three European nations: the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and Belarus. Statement 3 is incorrect. The brief measures the reduction in extreme poverty using the World Bank’s standard international poverty line of $2.15 per day, not $5.50 per day. Using this $2.15 threshold, the report notes that India lifted 171 million people out of extreme poverty between 2011 and 2023. Statement 4 is incorrect. With a Gini score of 25.5, India falls into the “moderately low inequality” band, which is defined for scores between 25 and 30. The “high inequality” category would correspond to a much higher Gini score. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that India’s Gini Index showed a significant improvement, decreasing from 28.8 in 2011 to 25.5 in 2023. A lower Gini coefficient signifies lower inequality, so this trend indicates a more equitable distribution of income across the population over this period. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India’s ranking is impressive, it is not the most equal country globally. The report places India as the 4th most equal country, ranked behind three European nations: the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and Belarus. Statement 3 is incorrect. The brief measures the reduction in extreme poverty using the World Bank’s standard international poverty line of $2.15 per day, not $5.50 per day. Using this $2.15 threshold, the report notes that India lifted 171 million people out of extreme poverty between 2011 and 2023. Statement 4 is incorrect. With a Gini score of 25.5, India falls into the “moderately low inequality” band, which is defined for scores between 25 and 30. The “high inequality” category would correspond to a much higher Gini score.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the World Bank’s Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, consider the following statements:

• India’s Gini Index improved, indicating a move towards more equitable income distribution.

• India is ranked as the most equal country globally, ahead of all European nations.

• The report uses a poverty threshold of $5.50/day to measure extreme poverty reduction.

• India’s Gini score places it in the “high inequality” category.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that India’s Gini Index showed a significant improvement, decreasing from 28.8 in 2011 to 25.5 in 2023. A lower Gini coefficient signifies lower inequality, so this trend indicates a more equitable distribution of income across the population over this period.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While India’s ranking is impressive, it is not the most equal country globally. The report places India as the 4th most equal country, ranked behind three European nations: the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and Belarus.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The brief measures the reduction in extreme poverty using the World Bank’s standard international poverty line of $2.15 per day, not $5.50 per day. Using this $2.15 threshold, the report notes that India lifted 171 million people out of extreme poverty between 2011 and 2023.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. With a Gini score of 25.5, India falls into the “moderately low inequality” band, which is defined for scores between 25 and 30. The “high inequality” category would correspond to a much higher Gini score.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question A Compliance-Based Code of Conduct is primarily derived from which ethical theory? (a) Virtue Ethics (b) Deontological Ethics (c) Consequentialism (d) Utilitarianism Correct Solution: B A Compliance-Based Code of Conduct emphasizes adherence to a set of pre-defined rules, laws, and policies. The focus is on duty and obligation—individuals are expected to follow these rules regardless of the outcome. This aligns perfectly with Deontological Ethics. Deontology is an ethical theory that judges the morality of an action based on rules. It is often described as “duty-based” or “rule-based” ethics. Virtue Ethics, in contrast, focuses on the character and moral virtues of the individual (e.g., integrity, honesty, courage). This philosophy inspires Value-Based Codes of Conduct, which encourage individuals to cultivate good character rather than just follow a list of dos and don’ts. Consequentialism and its best-known form, Utilitarianism, judge the morality of an action based on its outcomes or consequences (e.g., “the greatest good for the greatest number”). This is different from the rule-bound nature of a compliance-based code, which holds that certain actions are inherently right or wrong irrespective of their consequences. Incorrect Solution: B A Compliance-Based Code of Conduct emphasizes adherence to a set of pre-defined rules, laws, and policies. The focus is on duty and obligation—individuals are expected to follow these rules regardless of the outcome. This aligns perfectly with Deontological Ethics. Deontology is an ethical theory that judges the morality of an action based on rules. It is often described as “duty-based” or “rule-based” ethics. Virtue Ethics, in contrast, focuses on the character and moral virtues of the individual (e.g., integrity, honesty, courage). This philosophy inspires Value-Based Codes of Conduct, which encourage individuals to cultivate good character rather than just follow a list of dos and don’ts. Consequentialism and its best-known form, Utilitarianism, judge the morality of an action based on its outcomes or consequences (e.g., “the greatest good for the greatest number”). This is different from the rule-bound nature of a compliance-based code, which holds that certain actions are inherently right or wrong irrespective of their consequences.

#### 5. Question

A Compliance-Based Code of Conduct is primarily derived from which ethical theory?

• (a) Virtue Ethics

• (b) Deontological Ethics

• (c) Consequentialism

• (d) Utilitarianism

Solution: B

• A Compliance-Based Code of Conduct emphasizes adherence to a set of pre-defined rules, laws, and policies. The focus is on duty and obligation—individuals are expected to follow these rules regardless of the outcome. This aligns perfectly with Deontological Ethics. Deontology is an ethical theory that judges the morality of an action based on rules. It is often described as “duty-based” or “rule-based” ethics.

• Virtue Ethics, in contrast, focuses on the character and moral virtues of the individual (e.g., integrity, honesty, courage). This philosophy inspires Value-Based Codes of Conduct, which encourage individuals to cultivate good character rather than just follow a list of dos and don’ts.

• Consequentialism and its best-known form, Utilitarianism, judge the morality of an action based on its outcomes or consequences (e.g., “the greatest good for the greatest number”). This is different from the rule-bound nature of a compliance-based code, which holds that certain actions are inherently right or wrong irrespective of their consequences.

Solution: B

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