KartavyaDesk
news

UPSC Editorials Quiz : 10 April 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the C10 Grouping: The C10 represents 10 countries from the African Union. The C10 promotes the Ezulwini Consensus, advocating for Africa’s inclusion in the UNSC. C10’s primary goal is economic reforms in global institutions. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) The C10 (Committee of Ten) is a group of ten African countries mandated by the African Union (AU) to advocate for Africa’s common position on United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform. This mandate originates from the Ezulwini Consensus (2005), which asserts that Africa must be adequately represented in all organs of the UN, particularly in the Security Council, with at least two permanent seats and five non-permanent seats for African states. Thus, Statement 1 is correct, as the C10 indeed comprises ten African Union member states. Statement 2 is also correct, as promoting the Ezulwini Consensus forms the basis of its existence and operations in global diplomatic forums. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The C10 is not primarily focused on global economic reforms (such as IMF or World Bank restructuring), but rather on political and representational reforms, particularly within the UNSC framework. Incorrect Solution: b) The C10 (Committee of Ten) is a group of ten African countries mandated by the African Union (AU) to advocate for Africa’s common position on United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform. This mandate originates from the Ezulwini Consensus (2005), which asserts that Africa must be adequately represented in all organs of the UN, particularly in the Security Council, with at least two permanent seats and five non-permanent seats for African states. Thus, Statement 1 is correct, as the C10 indeed comprises ten African Union member states. Statement 2 is also correct, as promoting the Ezulwini Consensus forms the basis of its existence and operations in global diplomatic forums. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The C10 is not primarily focused on global economic reforms (such as IMF or World Bank restructuring), but rather on political and representational reforms, particularly within the UNSC framework.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the C10 Grouping:

• The C10 represents 10 countries from the African Union.

• The C10 promotes the Ezulwini Consensus, advocating for Africa’s inclusion in the UNSC.

• C10’s primary goal is economic reforms in global institutions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• The C10 (Committee of Ten) is a group of ten African countries mandated by the African Union (AU) to advocate for Africa’s common position on United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform.

• This mandate originates from the Ezulwini Consensus (2005), which asserts that Africa must be adequately represented in all organs of the UN, particularly in the Security Council, with at least two permanent seats and five non-permanent seats for African states. Thus, Statement 1 is correct, as the C10 indeed comprises ten African Union member states.

Statement 2 is also correct, as promoting the Ezulwini Consensus forms the basis of its existence and operations in global diplomatic forums.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The C10 is not primarily focused on global economic reforms (such as IMF or World Bank restructuring), but rather on political and representational reforms, particularly within the UNSC framework.

Solution: b)

• The C10 (Committee of Ten) is a group of ten African countries mandated by the African Union (AU) to advocate for Africa’s common position on United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform.

• This mandate originates from the Ezulwini Consensus (2005), which asserts that Africa must be adequately represented in all organs of the UN, particularly in the Security Council, with at least two permanent seats and five non-permanent seats for African states. Thus, Statement 1 is correct, as the C10 indeed comprises ten African Union member states.

Statement 2 is also correct, as promoting the Ezulwini Consensus forms the basis of its existence and operations in global diplomatic forums.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The C10 is not primarily focused on global economic reforms (such as IMF or World Bank restructuring), but rather on political and representational reforms, particularly within the UNSC framework.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations. It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security. All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC. Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War IIStatement 1 is correct. Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States). This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct. Incorrect Solution: c) The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War IIStatement 1 is correct. Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States). This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

• It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations.

• It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security.

• All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC.

• Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War IIStatement 1 is correct.

• Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States).

• This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

Solution: c)

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War IIStatement 1 is correct.

• Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States).

• This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following is NOT a power of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)? a) Issue binding directions to authorities b) Conduct research on pollution c) Penalize individuals for violating air quality standards d) Restrict activities impacting air quality Correct Solution: c) The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct. The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power. Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority. However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals. Incorrect Solution: c) The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct. The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power. Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority. However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following is NOT a power of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)?

• a) Issue binding directions to authorities

• b) Conduct research on pollution

• c) Penalize individuals for violating air quality standards

• d) Restrict activities impacting air quality

Solution: c)

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct.

• The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power.

• Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority.

• However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals.

Solution: c)

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct.

• The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power.

• Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority.

• However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following is the key objective of the ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative launched in 2024? a) To reduce the environmental impact of tourism b) To increase foreign tourist arrivals c) To create infrastructure for tourist attractions d) To empower locals as tourism ambassadors Correct Solution: d) ​The ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative, launched by India’s Ministry of Tourism in 2024, aims to enhance the tourism experience by empowering local communities, particularly women and youth, as tourism ambassadors. This program provides training to individuals such as cab drivers, hotel staff, and street vendors in hospitality, cleanliness, safety, sustainability, and local storytelling. The goal is to create ‘tourist-friendly’ individuals who can offer enriching experiences to visitors. By equipping locals with these skills, the initiative not only improves tourist satisfaction but also promotes social inclusion and economic development within these communities. Incorrect Solution: d) ​The ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative, launched by India’s Ministry of Tourism in 2024, aims to enhance the tourism experience by empowering local communities, particularly women and youth, as tourism ambassadors. This program provides training to individuals such as cab drivers, hotel staff, and street vendors in hospitality, cleanliness, safety, sustainability, and local storytelling. The goal is to create ‘tourist-friendly’ individuals who can offer enriching experiences to visitors. By equipping locals with these skills, the initiative not only improves tourist satisfaction but also promotes social inclusion and economic development within these communities.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is the key objective of the ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative launched in 2024?

• a) To reduce the environmental impact of tourism

• b) To increase foreign tourist arrivals

• c) To create infrastructure for tourist attractions

• d) To empower locals as tourism ambassadors

Solution: d)

• ​The ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative, launched by India’s Ministry of Tourism in 2024, aims to enhance the tourism experience by empowering local communities, particularly women and youth, as tourism ambassadors.

• This program provides training to individuals such as cab drivers, hotel staff, and street vendors in hospitality, cleanliness, safety, sustainability, and local storytelling. The goal is to create ‘tourist-friendly’ individuals who can offer enriching experiences to visitors.

• By equipping locals with these skills, the initiative not only improves tourist satisfaction but also promotes social inclusion and economic development within these communities.

Solution: d)

• ​The ‘Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi’ initiative, launched by India’s Ministry of Tourism in 2024, aims to enhance the tourism experience by empowering local communities, particularly women and youth, as tourism ambassadors.

• This program provides training to individuals such as cab drivers, hotel staff, and street vendors in hospitality, cleanliness, safety, sustainability, and local storytelling. The goal is to create ‘tourist-friendly’ individuals who can offer enriching experiences to visitors.

• By equipping locals with these skills, the initiative not only improves tourist satisfaction but also promotes social inclusion and economic development within these communities.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the PLI scheme for textiles: It aims to reduce India’s reliance on textile imports. The scheme provides tax benefits based on incremental sales of domestically manufactured goods. The PLI scheme aims to make India a global manufacturing hub by focusing on high-growth sectors. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct. It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness. Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive. Incorrect Solution: a) The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct. It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness. Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the PLI scheme for textiles:

• It aims to reduce India’s reliance on textile imports.

• The scheme provides tax benefits based on incremental sales of domestically manufactured goods.

• The PLI scheme aims to make India a global manufacturing hub by focusing on high-growth sectors.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct.

• It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness.

Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive.

Solution: a)

• The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct.

• It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness.

Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE

AI-assisted content, editorially reviewed by Kartavya Desk Staff.

About Kartavya Desk Staff

Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

All News