UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 November 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
.The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
#### Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
#### Information
Best of luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
Your score |
#### Categories
• Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result
Table is loading
No data available
| | | |
• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the applications of Python with Processing-In-Memory (PIM) technology: It is used exclusively for memory-intensive graphical applications. Python with PIM can reduce data transfer bottlenecks, especially in mathematical computations. This technology offers substantial energy savings for high-performance computing needs. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: c) Python with PIM is effective in reducing data transfer bottlenecks, particularly in computational tasks, and offers energy savings in high-performance applications. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is not limited to graphical applications but can benefit various computational fields. About Python Programming Language with Digital Processing-In-Memory (PIM) Technology: What it is: Combines Python with processing-in-memory (PIM) technology, enabling computations to take place directly in memory, bypassing the CPU. Need: Tackles the “memory wall” problem, where data transfer rates fall behind advancements in processor speeds and memory capacity. How it works: PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations. Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems. Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing. Significance: Reduces data transfer bottlenecks. Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks. Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs. Incorrect Solution: c) Python with PIM is effective in reducing data transfer bottlenecks, particularly in computational tasks, and offers energy savings in high-performance applications. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is not limited to graphical applications but can benefit various computational fields. About Python Programming Language with Digital Processing-In-Memory (PIM) Technology: What it is: Combines Python with processing-in-memory (PIM) technology, enabling computations to take place directly in memory, bypassing the CPU. Need: Tackles the “memory wall” problem, where data transfer rates fall behind advancements in processor speeds and memory capacity. How it works: PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations. Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems. Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing. Significance: Reduces data transfer bottlenecks. Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks. Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the applications of Python with Processing-In-Memory (PIM) technology:
• It is used exclusively for memory-intensive graphical applications.
• Python with PIM can reduce data transfer bottlenecks, especially in mathematical computations.
• This technology offers substantial energy savings for high-performance computing needs.
Which of the above statements is correct?
• b) 1 and 2 only
• c) 2 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: c)
Python with PIM is effective in reducing data transfer bottlenecks, particularly in computational tasks, and offers energy savings in high-performance applications. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is not limited to graphical applications but can benefit various computational fields.
About Python Programming Language with Digital Processing-In-Memory (PIM) Technology:
• What it is: Combines Python with processing-in-memory (PIM) technology, enabling computations to take place directly in memory, bypassing the CPU.
• Need: Tackles the “memory wall” problem, where data transfer rates fall behind advancements in processor speeds and memory capacity.
• How it works: PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations. Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems. Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing.
• PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations.
• Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems.
• Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing.
• Significance: Reduces data transfer bottlenecks. Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks. Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.
• Reduces data transfer bottlenecks.
• Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks.
• Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.
Solution: c)
Python with PIM is effective in reducing data transfer bottlenecks, particularly in computational tasks, and offers energy savings in high-performance applications. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is not limited to graphical applications but can benefit various computational fields.
About Python Programming Language with Digital Processing-In-Memory (PIM) Technology:
• What it is: Combines Python with processing-in-memory (PIM) technology, enabling computations to take place directly in memory, bypassing the CPU.
• Need: Tackles the “memory wall” problem, where data transfer rates fall behind advancements in processor speeds and memory capacity.
• How it works: PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations. Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems. Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing.
• PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations.
• Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems.
• Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing.
• Significance: Reduces data transfer bottlenecks. Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks. Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.
• Reduces data transfer bottlenecks.
• Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks.
• Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme: OROP benefits apply uniformly to all ex-service personnel, including those discharged voluntarily after the scheme’s implementation. The scheme provides for arrears to be paid in four half-yearly installments for most beneficiaries. Family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receive their arrears in a single installment. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2, and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect because personnel discharged voluntarily are not eligible for OROP benefits. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as arrears are paid in installments, with family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receiving them in a single installment. About One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme: Definition: OROP ensures that uniform pensions are paid to personnel retiring in the same rank with identical service lengths, regardless of when they retired. Implementation year: The government approved OROP in 2015, with benefits retroactively effective from July 1, 2014. Pension Re-fixation: Pensions are re-fixed based on the average of the minimum and maximum pensions of 2013 retirees of the same rank and service length. Arrears: Arrears are paid in four half-yearly instalments, except for family pensioners and Gallantry awardees, who receive it in one instalment. Future revisions: Pensions will be re-fixed every five years. Nodal agency: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence. Payment: Integrated within the standard pension, not a separate component. Exclusions: Personnel discharged voluntarily under specific military rules post-OROP implementation are not eligible. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect because personnel discharged voluntarily are not eligible for OROP benefits. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as arrears are paid in installments, with family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receiving them in a single installment. About One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme: Definition: OROP ensures that uniform pensions are paid to personnel retiring in the same rank with identical service lengths, regardless of when they retired. Implementation year: The government approved OROP in 2015, with benefits retroactively effective from July 1, 2014. Pension Re-fixation: Pensions are re-fixed based on the average of the minimum and maximum pensions of 2013 retirees of the same rank and service length. Arrears: Arrears are paid in four half-yearly instalments, except for family pensioners and Gallantry awardees, who receive it in one instalment. Future revisions: Pensions will be re-fixed every five years. Nodal agency: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence. Payment: Integrated within the standard pension, not a separate component. Exclusions: Personnel discharged voluntarily under specific military rules post-OROP implementation are not eligible.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme:
• OROP benefits apply uniformly to all ex-service personnel, including those discharged voluntarily after the scheme’s implementation.
• The scheme provides for arrears to be paid in four half-yearly installments for most beneficiaries.
• Family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receive their arrears in a single installment.
Which of the above statements is correct?
• a) 1 and 2 only
• b) 1, 2, and 3
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect because personnel discharged voluntarily are not eligible for OROP benefits. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as arrears are paid in installments, with family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receiving them in a single installment.
About One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme:
• Definition: OROP ensures that uniform pensions are paid to personnel retiring in the same rank with identical service lengths, regardless of when they retired.
• Implementation year: The government approved OROP in 2015, with benefits retroactively effective from July 1, 2014.
• Pension Re-fixation: Pensions are re-fixed based on the average of the minimum and maximum pensions of 2013 retirees of the same rank and service length.
• Arrears: Arrears are paid in four half-yearly instalments, except for family pensioners and Gallantry awardees, who receive it in one instalment.
• Future revisions: Pensions will be re-fixed every five years.
• Nodal agency: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence.
• Payment: Integrated within the standard pension, not a separate component.
• Exclusions: Personnel discharged voluntarily under specific military rules post-OROP implementation are not eligible.
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect because personnel discharged voluntarily are not eligible for OROP benefits. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as arrears are paid in installments, with family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receiving them in a single installment.
About One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme:
• Definition: OROP ensures that uniform pensions are paid to personnel retiring in the same rank with identical service lengths, regardless of when they retired.
• Implementation year: The government approved OROP in 2015, with benefits retroactively effective from July 1, 2014.
• Pension Re-fixation: Pensions are re-fixed based on the average of the minimum and maximum pensions of 2013 retirees of the same rank and service length.
• Arrears: Arrears are paid in four half-yearly instalments, except for family pensioners and Gallantry awardees, who receive it in one instalment.
• Future revisions: Pensions will be re-fixed every five years.
• Nodal agency: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence.
• Payment: Integrated within the standard pension, not a separate component.
• Exclusions: Personnel discharged voluntarily under specific military rules post-OROP implementation are not eligible.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the import and significance of Urad (black gram) in India: Urad is a staple crop only grown in the Rabi season in India. India imports a substantial amount of Urad from Brazil, among other countries, due to complementary cropping seasons. Urad cultivation has recently spread to tropical regions, including the Caribbean and parts of Africa. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Urad is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct because India imports Urad from countries like Brazil due to their complementary cropping seasons, and Urad cultivation has indeed expanded to tropical regions beyond South Asia. About Urad: Scientific name: Vigna mungo, commonly known as black gram. Origins: Native to South Asia; widely cultivated and highly valued in India. Culinary use: Essential in Indian cuisine, often used as a dal and paired with rice or curry. Season: Grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Global cultivation: Also grown in tropical regions like the Caribbean, Fiji, Myanmar, and Africa, introduced by Indian immigrants. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Urad is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct because India imports Urad from countries like Brazil due to their complementary cropping seasons, and Urad cultivation has indeed expanded to tropical regions beyond South Asia. About Urad: Scientific name: Vigna mungo, commonly known as black gram. Origins: Native to South Asia; widely cultivated and highly valued in India. Culinary use: Essential in Indian cuisine, often used as a dal and paired with rice or curry. Season: Grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Global cultivation: Also grown in tropical regions like the Caribbean, Fiji, Myanmar, and Africa, introduced by Indian immigrants.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about the import and significance of Urad (black gram) in India:
• Urad is a staple crop only grown in the Rabi season in India.
• India imports a substantial amount of Urad from Brazil, among other countries, due to complementary cropping seasons.
• Urad cultivation has recently spread to tropical regions, including the Caribbean and parts of Africa.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect as Urad is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct because India imports Urad from countries like Brazil due to their complementary cropping seasons, and Urad cultivation has indeed expanded to tropical regions beyond South Asia.
About Urad:
• Scientific name: Vigna mungo, commonly known as black gram.
• Origins: Native to South Asia; widely cultivated and highly valued in India.
• Culinary use: Essential in Indian cuisine, often used as a dal and paired with rice or curry.
• Season: Grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India.
• Global cultivation: Also grown in tropical regions like the Caribbean, Fiji, Myanmar, and Africa, introduced by Indian immigrants.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect as Urad is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct because India imports Urad from countries like Brazil due to their complementary cropping seasons, and Urad cultivation has indeed expanded to tropical regions beyond South Asia.
About Urad:
• Scientific name: Vigna mungo, commonly known as black gram.
• Origins: Native to South Asia; widely cultivated and highly valued in India.
• Culinary use: Essential in Indian cuisine, often used as a dal and paired with rice or curry.
• Season: Grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India.
Global cultivation: Also grown in tropical regions like the Caribbean, Fiji, Myanmar, and Africa, introduced by Indian immigrants.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which body was replaced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) to oversee air quality improvement in NCR? a) National Green Tribunal (NGT) b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) c) Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) d) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) Correct Solution: c) The CAQM was established to replace the EPCA in 2021, with an expanded mandate to coordinate air quality management in NCR and surrounding states. About Commission for Air Quality Management: Origin:Established under the CAQM Act, 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas, replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). Aim:Coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality, prevent and control air pollution in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh). Jurisdiction:Delhi-NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Powers: Restrict activities impacting air quality. Conduct research on pollution. Issue binding directions to authorities and individuals. Enforce compliance and take preventive actions. Composition: Chairperson: Secretary/Chief Secretary rank official. Five ex officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP. Three full-time technical members. Members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO, and NITI Aayog. Incorrect Solution: c) The CAQM was established to replace the EPCA in 2021, with an expanded mandate to coordinate air quality management in NCR and surrounding states. About Commission for Air Quality Management: Origin:Established under the CAQM Act, 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas, replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). Aim:Coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality, prevent and control air pollution in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh). Jurisdiction:Delhi-NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Powers: Restrict activities impacting air quality. Conduct research on pollution. Issue binding directions to authorities and individuals. Enforce compliance and take preventive actions. Composition: Chairperson: Secretary/Chief Secretary rank official. Five ex officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP. Three full-time technical members. Members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO, and NITI Aayog.
#### 4. Question
Which body was replaced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) to oversee air quality improvement in NCR?
• a) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
• b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
• c) Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA)
• d) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
Solution: c)
The CAQM was established to replace the EPCA in 2021, with an expanded mandate to coordinate air quality management in NCR and surrounding states.
About Commission for Air Quality Management:
• Origin:Established under the CAQM Act, 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas, replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).
• Aim:Coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality, prevent and control air pollution in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh).
• Jurisdiction:Delhi-NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
Powers:
• Restrict activities impacting air quality.
• Conduct research on pollution.
• Issue binding directions to authorities and individuals.
• Enforce compliance and take preventive actions.
Composition:
• Chairperson: Secretary/Chief Secretary rank official.
• Five ex officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP.
• Three full-time technical members.
• Members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO, and NITI Aayog.
Solution: c)
The CAQM was established to replace the EPCA in 2021, with an expanded mandate to coordinate air quality management in NCR and surrounding states.
About Commission for Air Quality Management:
• Origin:Established under the CAQM Act, 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas, replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).
• Aim:Coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality, prevent and control air pollution in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh).
• Jurisdiction:Delhi-NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
Powers:
• Restrict activities impacting air quality.
• Conduct research on pollution.
• Issue binding directions to authorities and individuals.
• Enforce compliance and take preventive actions.
Composition:
• Chairperson: Secretary/Chief Secretary rank official.
• Five ex officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP.
• Three full-time technical members.
• Members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO, and NITI Aayog.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Dholera is part of which of the following unique development initiatives in India? a) Brownfield Industrial Park b) Renewable Energy Cluster c) Special Agricultural Economic Zone d) India’s first Greenfield Smart City Correct Solution: d) The Gujarat government has introduced India’s first ‘Gujarat Semiconductor Policy 2022-2027. In Dholera’s emerging ‘Semicon City,’ Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) and Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) are establishing India’s first AI-enabled semiconductor fabrication facility with an investment exceeding Rs 91,000 crore. Dholera, is being developed as India’s first Greenfield Smart City. Incorrect Solution: d) The Gujarat government has introduced India’s first ‘Gujarat Semiconductor Policy 2022-2027. In Dholera’s emerging ‘Semicon City,’ Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) and Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) are establishing India’s first AI-enabled semiconductor fabrication facility with an investment exceeding Rs 91,000 crore. Dholera, is being developed as India’s first Greenfield Smart City.
#### 5. Question
Dholera is part of which of the following unique development initiatives in India?
• a) Brownfield Industrial Park
• b) Renewable Energy Cluster
• c) Special Agricultural Economic Zone
• d) India’s first Greenfield Smart City
Solution: d)
• The Gujarat government has introduced India’s first ‘Gujarat Semiconductor Policy 2022-2027.
• In Dholera’s emerging ‘Semicon City,’ Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) and Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) are establishing India’s first AI-enabled semiconductor fabrication facility with an investment exceeding Rs 91,000 crore.
Dholera, is being developed as India’s first Greenfield Smart City.
Solution: d)
• The Gujarat government has introduced India’s first ‘Gujarat Semiconductor Policy 2022-2027.
• In Dholera’s emerging ‘Semicon City,’ Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) and Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) are establishing India’s first AI-enabled semiconductor fabrication facility with an investment exceeding Rs 91,000 crore.
Dholera, is being developed as India’s first Greenfield Smart City.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): ISM was launched with a dedicated budget under the Ministry of Commerce. The mission includes incentives to establish semiconductor fabs, display fabs, and compound semiconductor facilities. ISM supports the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) within the semiconductor sector. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM was launched under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as ISM includes support for fabs, incentives, and IP creation. About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): Launch: Initiated in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) with a budget of Rs. 76,000 crores. Objective: Develop a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India. Financial support: Provides incentives for companies investing in semiconductor and display manufacturing, and design capabilities. Focus on IP and Technology Transfer: Encourages the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) and supports the Transfer of Technologies (ToT). Key schemes: Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India. Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities. Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units. Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM was launched under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as ISM includes support for fabs, incentives, and IP creation. About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): Launch: Initiated in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) with a budget of Rs. 76,000 crores. Objective: Develop a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India. Financial support: Provides incentives for companies investing in semiconductor and display manufacturing, and design capabilities. Focus on IP and Technology Transfer: Encourages the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) and supports the Transfer of Technologies (ToT). Key schemes: Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India. Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities. Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units. Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements about the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
• ISM was launched with a dedicated budget under the Ministry of Commerce.
• The mission includes incentives to establish semiconductor fabs, display fabs, and compound semiconductor facilities.
• ISM supports the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) within the semiconductor sector.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM was launched under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as ISM includes support for fabs, incentives, and IP creation.
About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
• Launch: Initiated in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) with a budget of Rs. 76,000 crores.
• Objective: Develop a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India.
• Financial support: Provides incentives for companies investing in semiconductor and display manufacturing, and design capabilities.
• Focus on IP and Technology Transfer: Encourages the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) and supports the Transfer of Technologies (ToT).
• Key schemes: Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India. Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities. Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units. Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.
• Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India.
• Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities.
• Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units.
• Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM was launched under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as ISM includes support for fabs, incentives, and IP creation.
About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
• Launch: Initiated in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) with a budget of Rs. 76,000 crores.
• Objective: Develop a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India.
• Financial support: Provides incentives for companies investing in semiconductor and display manufacturing, and design capabilities.
• Focus on IP and Technology Transfer: Encourages the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) and supports the Transfer of Technologies (ToT).
• Key schemes: Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India. Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities. Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units. Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.
• Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India.
• Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities.
• Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units.
• Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Shanan Hydropower Project: It is the first hydropower project in India with a capacity exceeding 100 MW. The project is built directly on the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Shanan was India’s first 100 MW-capacity hydropower project. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project is built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas, not directly on the Beas. About Shanan Hydropower Project: Established: Commissioned in 1932, it is India’s first megawatt-capacity hydroelectric project. Location: Joginder Nagar in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh. River: Built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas. Issue: Leased to Punjab for 99 years in 1925, the agreement ended in March 2024; Himachal Pradesh seeks ownership now, arguing that the land originally belonged to it. Present Status: Under Punjab’s control, Himachal is seeking support from the Centre to secure the project’s transfer. Incorrect Solution: a) Shanan was India’s first 100 MW-capacity hydropower project. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project is built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas, not directly on the Beas. About Shanan Hydropower Project: Established: Commissioned in 1932, it is India’s first megawatt-capacity hydroelectric project. Location: Joginder Nagar in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh. River: Built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas. Issue: Leased to Punjab for 99 years in 1925, the agreement ended in March 2024; Himachal Pradesh seeks ownership now, arguing that the land originally belonged to it. Present Status: Under Punjab’s control, Himachal is seeking support from the Centre to secure the project’s transfer.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements about the Shanan Hydropower Project:
• It is the first hydropower project in India with a capacity exceeding 100 MW.
• The project is built directly on the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Shanan was India’s first 100 MW-capacity hydropower project. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project is built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas, not directly on the Beas.
About Shanan Hydropower Project:
• Established: Commissioned in 1932, it is India’s first megawatt-capacity hydroelectric project.
• Location: Joginder Nagar in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh.
• River: Built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas.
• Issue: Leased to Punjab for 99 years in 1925, the agreement ended in March 2024; Himachal Pradesh seeks ownership now, arguing that the land originally belonged to it.
Present Status: Under Punjab’s control, Himachal is seeking support from the Centre to secure the project’s transfer.
Solution: a)
Shanan was India’s first 100 MW-capacity hydropower project. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project is built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas, not directly on the Beas.
About Shanan Hydropower Project:
• Established: Commissioned in 1932, it is India’s first megawatt-capacity hydroelectric project.
• Location: Joginder Nagar in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh.
• River: Built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas.
• Issue: Leased to Punjab for 99 years in 1925, the agreement ended in March 2024; Himachal Pradesh seeks ownership now, arguing that the land originally belonged to it.
Present Status: Under Punjab’s control, Himachal is seeking support from the Centre to secure the project’s transfer.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following principles allows airships to achieve lift? a) Lighter-than-air principle using gases like helium or hydrogen b) Thrust-based propulsion like jet engines c) Magnetic levitation similar to Maglev trains d) Vacuum-filled compartments to reduce weight Correct Solution: a) Airships operate on the lighter-than-air principle, where gases such as helium or hydrogen, which are less dense than atmospheric air, provide lift. Unlike jet engines or Maglev trains (options b and c), airships use buoyancy instead of thrust or magnetism. About Airships: Origin and History: Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century. Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships. How they work: Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift. Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air. Buoyancy challenge: Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost. Innovative solutions involve water ballast or compressed gas systems to adjust buoyancy without excessive helium usage. Incorrect Solution: a) Airships operate on the lighter-than-air principle, where gases such as helium or hydrogen, which are less dense than atmospheric air, provide lift. Unlike jet engines or Maglev trains (options b and c), airships use buoyancy instead of thrust or magnetism. About Airships: Origin and History: Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century. Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships. How they work: Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift. Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air. Buoyancy challenge: Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost. Innovative solutions involve water ballast or compressed gas systems to adjust buoyancy without excessive helium usage.
#### 8. Question
Which of the following principles allows airships to achieve lift?
• a) Lighter-than-air principle using gases like helium or hydrogen
• b) Thrust-based propulsion like jet engines
• c) Magnetic levitation similar to Maglev trains
• d) Vacuum-filled compartments to reduce weight
Solution: a)
Airships operate on the lighter-than-air principle, where gases such as helium or hydrogen, which are less dense than atmospheric air, provide lift. Unlike jet engines or Maglev trains (options b and c), airships use buoyancy instead of thrust or magnetism.
About Airships:
• Origin and History: Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century. Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships.
• Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century.
• Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships.
• How they work: Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift. Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air.
• Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift.
• Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air.
• Buoyancy challenge: Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost.
• Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost.
Innovative solutions involve water ballast or compressed gas systems to adjust buoyancy without excessive helium usage.
Solution: a)
Airships operate on the lighter-than-air principle, where gases such as helium or hydrogen, which are less dense than atmospheric air, provide lift. Unlike jet engines or Maglev trains (options b and c), airships use buoyancy instead of thrust or magnetism.
About Airships:
• Origin and History: Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century. Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships.
• Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century.
• Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships.
• How they work: Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift. Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air.
• Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or, earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift.
• Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air.
• Buoyancy challenge: Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost.
• Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously, releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost.
Innovative solutions involve water ballast or compressed gas systems to adjust buoyancy without excessive helium usage.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Namibia’s geography and neighboring borders: Namibia shares its northeastern border with Zimbabwe. The Kunene and Okavango are major rivers along Namibia’s borders. The Atlantic Ocean lies along Namibia’s eastern border. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; Namibia’s northeastern neighbor is Zambia, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct; the Kunene and Okavango rivers are prominent rivers along Namibia’s borders. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Atlantic Ocean lies to Namibia’s west, not east. About Namibia: Location: Situated on the southwestern coast of Africa in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres. Borders: Neighboring countries include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola; bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west. Topography: Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast. Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert. Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east. Rivers: Permanent rivers include the Kunene, Okavango, Mashi, Zambezi (north), and Orange River (south). Mountain: Brandberg, Namibia’s highest peak, lies on the plateau’s western edge. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; Namibia’s northeastern neighbor is Zambia, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct; the Kunene and Okavango rivers are prominent rivers along Namibia’s borders. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Atlantic Ocean lies to Namibia’s west, not east. About Namibia: Location: Situated on the southwestern coast of Africa in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres. Borders: Neighboring countries include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola; bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west. Topography: Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast. Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert. Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east. Rivers: Permanent rivers include the Kunene, Okavango, Mashi, Zambezi (north), and Orange River (south). Mountain: Brandberg, Namibia’s highest peak, lies on the plateau’s western edge.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Namibia’s geography and neighboring borders:
• Namibia shares its northeastern border with Zimbabwe.
• The Kunene and Okavango are major rivers along Namibia’s borders.
• The Atlantic Ocean lies along Namibia’s eastern border.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect; Namibia’s northeastern neighbor is Zambia, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct; the Kunene and Okavango rivers are prominent rivers along Namibia’s borders. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Atlantic Ocean lies to Namibia’s west, not east.
About Namibia:
• Location: Situated on the southwestern coast of Africa in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres.
• Borders: Neighboring countries include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola; bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west.
• Topography: Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast. Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert. Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east.
• Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast.
• Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert.
• Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east.
• Rivers: Permanent rivers include the Kunene, Okavango, Mashi, Zambezi (north), and Orange River (south).
• Mountain: Brandberg, Namibia’s highest peak, lies on the plateau’s western edge.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect; Namibia’s northeastern neighbor is Zambia, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct; the Kunene and Okavango rivers are prominent rivers along Namibia’s borders. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Atlantic Ocean lies to Namibia’s west, not east.
About Namibia:
• Location: Situated on the southwestern coast of Africa in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres.
• Borders: Neighboring countries include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola; bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west.
• Topography: Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast. Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert. Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east.
• Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast.
• Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert.
• Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east.
• Rivers: Permanent rivers include the Kunene, Okavango, Mashi, Zambezi (north), and Orange River (south).
• Mountain: Brandberg, Namibia’s highest peak, lies on the plateau’s western edge.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM): CAQM can issue binding directions to authorities in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states to improve air quality. CAQM has jurisdiction over all states in India. The commission has powers to restrict activities that impact air quality negatively. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM has the authority to issue binding directions and restrict harmful activities. Statement 2 is incorrect because CAQM’s jurisdiction is limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining states, not the entire country. Incorrect Solution: c) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM has the authority to issue binding directions and restrict harmful activities. Statement 2 is incorrect because CAQM’s jurisdiction is limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining states, not the entire country.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
• CAQM can issue binding directions to authorities in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states to improve air quality.
• CAQM has jurisdiction over all states in India.
• The commission has powers to restrict activities that impact air quality negatively.
Which of the above statements is correct?
• b) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: c)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM has the authority to issue binding directions and restrict harmful activities. Statement 2 is incorrect because CAQM’s jurisdiction is limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining states, not the entire country.
Solution: c)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM has the authority to issue binding directions and restrict harmful activities. Statement 2 is incorrect because CAQM’s jurisdiction is limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining states, not the entire country.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for
Join our Twitter Channel HERE
Follow our Instagram Channel HERE