UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the South China Sea disputes: The “nine-dash line” claim by China encompasses approximately 50% of the South China Sea and is largely accepted under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). The Paracel Islands are primarily disputed between the Philippines and Malaysia, with China playing a mediating role. The Sunda Shelf is the deepest part of the South China Sea and is a major area for hydrocarbon exploration. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s “nine-dash line” (or more recently, a “ten-dash line” including Taiwan ) claim encompasses almost the entirety (roughly 90%) of the South China Sea, not just 50%. Furthermore, this claim was largely invalidated by a 2016 arbitral tribunal ruling under UNCLOS, a ruling that China refuses to recognize. It is not largely accepted under UNCLOS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paracel Islands are primarily claimed by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam. China currently controls them in their entirety after seizing them from South Vietnam in 1974. The Philippines and Malaysia are major claimants in the Spratly Islands dispute, not primarily the Paracels, and China is an assertive claimant, not a mediator, in the Paracel dispute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The China Sea Basin is the deepest part of the South China Sea, with depths reaching up to approximately 5,016 meters. The Sunda Shelf is a broad, shallow continental shelf connecting the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea; it is not the deepest part. While hydrocarbon exploration occurs in various parts of the South China Sea, including areas overlying the Sunda Shelf, the statement incorrectly identifies the Sunda Shelf as the deepest part. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s “nine-dash line” (or more recently, a “ten-dash line” including Taiwan ) claim encompasses almost the entirety (roughly 90%) of the South China Sea, not just 50%. Furthermore, this claim was largely invalidated by a 2016 arbitral tribunal ruling under UNCLOS, a ruling that China refuses to recognize. It is not largely accepted under UNCLOS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paracel Islands are primarily claimed by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam. China currently controls them in their entirety after seizing them from South Vietnam in 1974. The Philippines and Malaysia are major claimants in the Spratly Islands dispute, not primarily the Paracels, and China is an assertive claimant, not a mediator, in the Paracel dispute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The China Sea Basin is the deepest part of the South China Sea, with depths reaching up to approximately 5,016 meters. The Sunda Shelf is a broad, shallow continental shelf connecting the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea; it is not the deepest part. While hydrocarbon exploration occurs in various parts of the South China Sea, including areas overlying the Sunda Shelf, the statement incorrectly identifies the Sunda Shelf as the deepest part.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the South China Sea disputes:

• The “nine-dash line” claim by China encompasses approximately 50% of the South China Sea and is largely accepted under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

• The Paracel Islands are primarily disputed between the Philippines and Malaysia, with China playing a mediating role.

• The Sunda Shelf is the deepest part of the South China Sea and is a major area for hydrocarbon exploration.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s “nine-dash line” (or more recently, a “ten-dash line” including Taiwan ) claim encompasses almost the entirety (roughly 90%) of the South China Sea, not just 50%. Furthermore, this claim was largely invalidated by a 2016 arbitral tribunal ruling under UNCLOS, a ruling that China refuses to recognize. It is not largely accepted under UNCLOS.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paracel Islands are primarily claimed by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam. China currently controls them in their entirety after seizing them from South Vietnam in 1974. The Philippines and Malaysia are major claimants in the Spratly Islands dispute, not primarily the Paracels, and China is an assertive claimant, not a mediator, in the Paracel dispute.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The China Sea Basin is the deepest part of the South China Sea, with depths reaching up to approximately 5,016 meters. The Sunda Shelf is a broad, shallow continental shelf connecting the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea; it is not the deepest part. While hydrocarbon exploration occurs in various parts of the South China Sea, including areas overlying the Sunda Shelf, the statement incorrectly identifies the Sunda Shelf as the deepest part.

Solution: d)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI): The GHCI is implemented by the Ministry of Power, with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) acting as the primary certification body. The scheme mandates a specific greenhouse gas (GHG) emission threshold, measured in kg CO2 equivalent per kg H2, for hydrogen to be certified as “green.” Certification under GHCI covers the entire lifecycle of green hydrogen, including its production, transportation, and storage, to ensure end-to-end traceability. The scheme is mandatory for all hydrogen producers in India, irrespective of whether their product is for domestic consumption or exclusively for export. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is designated as the Nodal Agency for the scheme, responsible for its implementation and oversight. The actual certification will be carried out by Accredited Carbon Verification (ACV) Agencies. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of the GHCI is to certify hydrogen as “green” based on its emissions intensity. This involves defining a specific greenhouse gas (GHG) emission threshold that must be met during the production process. The metric used is kilograms of carbon dioxide equivalent per kilogram of hydrogen (kg CO2 eq/kg H2). Hydrogen produced must meet this benchmark, ensuring it is derived exclusively from renewable energy sources, to qualify for green certification. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scope of the GHCI is project-level certification that extends up to the point of hydrogen purification. It explicitly excludes the transportation and storage phases of the hydrogen lifecycle. While traceability is a goal, the current certification framework focuses on the production process itself. Statement 4 is incorrect. Compliance with the GHCI is mandatory for all domestic hydrogen producers who wish to label their product as “green” for use within India. However, the scheme provides an exemption for units that are producing hydrogen exclusively for export purposes. This distinction is important for facilitating India’s green hydrogen export ambitions while ensuring credibility in the domestic market. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is designated as the Nodal Agency for the scheme, responsible for its implementation and oversight. The actual certification will be carried out by Accredited Carbon Verification (ACV) Agencies. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of the GHCI is to certify hydrogen as “green” based on its emissions intensity. This involves defining a specific greenhouse gas (GHG) emission threshold that must be met during the production process. The metric used is kilograms of carbon dioxide equivalent per kilogram of hydrogen (kg CO2 eq/kg H2). Hydrogen produced must meet this benchmark, ensuring it is derived exclusively from renewable energy sources, to qualify for green certification. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scope of the GHCI is project-level certification that extends up to the point of hydrogen purification. It explicitly excludes the transportation and storage phases of the hydrogen lifecycle. While traceability is a goal, the current certification framework focuses on the production process itself. Statement 4 is incorrect. Compliance with the GHCI is mandatory for all domestic hydrogen producers who wish to label their product as “green” for use within India. However, the scheme provides an exemption for units that are producing hydrogen exclusively for export purposes. This distinction is important for facilitating India’s green hydrogen export ambitions while ensuring credibility in the domestic market.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI):

• The GHCI is implemented by the Ministry of Power, with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) acting as the primary certification body.

• The scheme mandates a specific greenhouse gas (GHG) emission threshold, measured in kg CO2 equivalent per kg H2, for hydrogen to be certified as “green.”

• Certification under GHCI covers the entire lifecycle of green hydrogen, including its production, transportation, and storage, to ensure end-to-end traceability.

• The scheme is mandatory for all hydrogen producers in India, irrespective of whether their product is for domestic consumption or exclusively for export.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is designated as the Nodal Agency for the scheme, responsible for its implementation and oversight. The actual certification will be carried out by Accredited Carbon Verification (ACV) Agencies.

Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of the GHCI is to certify hydrogen as “green” based on its emissions intensity. This involves defining a specific greenhouse gas (GHG) emission threshold that must be met during the production process. The metric used is kilograms of carbon dioxide equivalent per kilogram of hydrogen (kg CO2 eq/kg H2). Hydrogen produced must meet this benchmark, ensuring it is derived exclusively from renewable energy sources, to qualify for green certification.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The scope of the GHCI is project-level certification that extends up to the point of hydrogen purification. It explicitly excludes the transportation and storage phases of the hydrogen lifecycle. While traceability is a goal, the current certification framework focuses on the production process itself.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Compliance with the GHCI is mandatory for all domestic hydrogen producers who wish to label their product as “green” for use within India. However, the scheme provides an exemption for units that are producing hydrogen exclusively for export purposes. This distinction is important for facilitating India’s green hydrogen export ambitions while ensuring credibility in the domestic market.

Solution: a)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which one of the following represents the most accurate combination of the IUCN Red List status and a primary threat for the Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle (Batagur kachuga)? (a) Vulnerable; Incidental capture in fishing nets (b) Endangered; Competition with invasive turtle species (c) Critically Endangered; Habitat degradation due to pollution and sand mining (d) Near Threatened; Predation of eggs by natural predators Correct Solution: (c) The Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle (*Batagur kachuga*) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, signifying an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. This is its current global protection status. Among the primary threats, habitat degradation is a major factor. This includes pollution of their riverine habitats, disturbances from dam construction which alter river flow and sediment dynamics, and excessive water abstraction. Specifically, sand mining on riverbanks and farming on these banks destroy their critical nesting sites, as these turtles require sandy beaches or sandbars to lay their eggs. Poaching for meat and shells is another severe threat. Incorrect Solution: (c) The Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle (*Batagur kachuga*) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, signifying an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. This is its current global protection status. Among the primary threats, habitat degradation is a major factor. This includes pollution of their riverine habitats, disturbances from dam construction which alter river flow and sediment dynamics, and excessive water abstraction. Specifically, sand mining on riverbanks and farming on these banks destroy their critical nesting sites, as these turtles require sandy beaches or sandbars to lay their eggs. Poaching for meat and shells is another severe threat.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following represents the most accurate combination of the IUCN Red List status and a primary threat for the Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle (Batagur kachuga)?

• (a) Vulnerable; Incidental capture in fishing nets

• (b) Endangered; Competition with invasive turtle species

• (c) Critically Endangered; Habitat degradation due to pollution and sand mining

• (d) Near Threatened; Predation of eggs by natural predators

Solution: (c)

The Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle (*Batagur kachuga*) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, signifying an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. This is its current global protection status.

Among the primary threats, habitat degradation is a major factor. This includes pollution of their riverine habitats, disturbances from dam construction which alter river flow and sediment dynamics, and excessive water abstraction. Specifically, sand mining on riverbanks and farming on these banks destroy their critical nesting sites, as these turtles require sandy beaches or sandbars to lay their eggs. Poaching for meat and shells is another severe threat.

Solution: (c)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements: To be eligible for appointment as CJI, a person must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least ten years or been an advocate in a High Court for at least five years. The Constitution of India prescribes a fixed tenure of five years for the office of the Chief Justice of India. The President of India can appoint an Acting Chief Justice if the office of the CJI is vacant, but only after obtaining concurrence from the collegium of the five senior-most Supreme Court judges. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court (and thus, by extension, for the CJI who is appointed from amongst these judges) are: being a citizen of India, and having served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years (not ten), or having been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years (not five), or being a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. The statement reverses the required years of service for a High Court judge and an advocate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe a fixed tenure for the office of the Chief Justice of India. A CJI, like other Supreme Court judges, holds office until they attain the age of 65 years, as per Article 124(2) of the Constitution. The actual length of their tenure as CJI depends on their age at the time of appointment to this specific office. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 126 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice by the President when the office of the CJI is vacant or if the CJI is unable to perform their duties. While the senior-most available judge usually performs these duties, the appointment is made by the President. There is no provision that the President needs to obtain concurrence from a collegium of five senior-most Supreme Court judges for appointing an Acting CJI. The collegium system is primarily associated with the appointment and transfer of judges, not specifically the ad-hoc appointment of an Acting CJI under Article 126, which is an executive prerogative to ensure continuity. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court (and thus, by extension, for the CJI who is appointed from amongst these judges) are: being a citizen of India, and having served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years (not ten), or having been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years (not five), or being a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. The statement reverses the required years of service for a High Court judge and an advocate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe a fixed tenure for the office of the Chief Justice of India. A CJI, like other Supreme Court judges, holds office until they attain the age of 65 years, as per Article 124(2) of the Constitution. The actual length of their tenure as CJI depends on their age at the time of appointment to this specific office. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 126 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice by the President when the office of the CJI is vacant or if the CJI is unable to perform their duties. While the senior-most available judge usually performs these duties, the appointment is made by the President. There is no provision that the President needs to obtain concurrence from a collegium of five senior-most Supreme Court judges for appointing an Acting CJI. The collegium system is primarily associated with the appointment and transfer of judges, not specifically the ad-hoc appointment of an Acting CJI under Article 126, which is an executive prerogative to ensure continuity.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:

• To be eligible for appointment as CJI, a person must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least ten years or been an advocate in a High Court for at least five years.

• The Constitution of India prescribes a fixed tenure of five years for the office of the Chief Justice of India.

• The President of India can appoint an Acting Chief Justice if the office of the CJI is vacant, but only after obtaining concurrence from the collegium of the five senior-most Supreme Court judges.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court (and thus, by extension, for the CJI who is appointed from amongst these judges) are: being a citizen of India, and having served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years (not ten), or having been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years (not five), or being a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. The statement reverses the required years of service for a High Court judge and an advocate.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe a fixed tenure for the office of the Chief Justice of India. A CJI, like other Supreme Court judges, holds office until they attain the age of 65 years, as per Article 124(2) of the Constitution. The actual length of their tenure as CJI depends on their age at the time of appointment to this specific office.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 126 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice by the President when the office of the CJI is vacant or if the CJI is unable to perform their duties. While the senior-most available judge usually performs these duties, the appointment is made by the President. There is no provision that the President needs to obtain concurrence from a collegium of five senior-most Supreme Court judges for appointing an Acting CJI. The collegium system is primarily associated with the appointment and transfer of judges, not specifically the ad-hoc appointment of an Acting CJI under Article 126, which is an executive prerogative to ensure continuity.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Starlink is an example of Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite constellations designed to provide global broadband services with significantly lower latency than traditional Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites. A key advantage of LEO satellite internet constellations is their inherent immunity to weather-related signal disruptions, particularly in higher frequency bands. Inter-satellite links using lasers or radio waves are crucial for creating a mesh network in space, enabling seamless data transfer and reducing reliance on numerous ground stations. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Starlink (SpaceX) and OneWeb (UK/India collaboration) are indeed prominent examples of LEO satellite constellations. Both are designed to provide high-speed, low-latency broadband internet services globally. LEO satellites orbit much closer to Earth (typically 500-2,000 km) compared to GEO satellites, which significantly reduces signal travel time (latency), making them better for interactive applications like video calls and online gaming. Statement 2 is incorrect. LEO satellite internet constellations, especially those using higher frequency bands like Ka-band and V-band, are susceptible to weather-related signal disruptions. Heavy rain, snow, or severe storms can cause signal attenuation, a phenomenon known as “rain fade.” While adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) techniques can help mitigate these effects to some extent by adjusting signal strength, they do not provide inherent immunity. C-band is more resilient to weather but offers lower speeds. Statement 3 is correct. Inter-satellite links (ISLs), often using lasers (optical links) or radio waves, are a critical technology for advanced LEO constellations. These links allow satellites to communicate directly with each other, forming a mesh network in space. This enables data to be routed efficiently across the constellation, reducing the need for data to always travel down to a ground station and then back up. This enhances global coverage, reduces latency further, and improves the resilience of the network. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Starlink (SpaceX) and OneWeb (UK/India collaboration) are indeed prominent examples of LEO satellite constellations. Both are designed to provide high-speed, low-latency broadband internet services globally. LEO satellites orbit much closer to Earth (typically 500-2,000 km) compared to GEO satellites, which significantly reduces signal travel time (latency), making them better for interactive applications like video calls and online gaming. Statement 2 is incorrect. LEO satellite internet constellations, especially those using higher frequency bands like Ka-band and V-band, are susceptible to weather-related signal disruptions. Heavy rain, snow, or severe storms can cause signal attenuation, a phenomenon known as “rain fade.” While adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) techniques can help mitigate these effects to some extent by adjusting signal strength, they do not provide inherent immunity. C-band is more resilient to weather but offers lower speeds. Statement 3 is correct. Inter-satellite links (ISLs), often using lasers (optical links) or radio waves, are a critical technology for advanced LEO constellations. These links allow satellites to communicate directly with each other, forming a mesh network in space. This enables data to be routed efficiently across the constellation, reducing the need for data to always travel down to a ground station and then back up. This enhances global coverage, reduces latency further, and improves the resilience of the network.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Starlink is an example of Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite constellations designed to provide global broadband services with significantly lower latency than traditional Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites.

• A key advantage of LEO satellite internet constellations is their inherent immunity to weather-related signal disruptions, particularly in higher frequency bands.

• Inter-satellite links using lasers or radio waves are crucial for creating a mesh network in space, enabling seamless data transfer and reducing reliance on numerous ground stations.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Starlink (SpaceX) and OneWeb (UK/India collaboration) are indeed prominent examples of LEO satellite constellations. Both are designed to provide high-speed, low-latency broadband internet services globally. LEO satellites orbit much closer to Earth (typically 500-2,000 km) compared to GEO satellites, which significantly reduces signal travel time (latency), making them better for interactive applications like video calls and online gaming.

Statement 2 is incorrect. LEO satellite internet constellations, especially those using higher frequency bands like Ka-band and V-band, are susceptible to weather-related signal disruptions. Heavy rain, snow, or severe storms can cause signal attenuation, a phenomenon known as “rain fade.” While adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) techniques can help mitigate these effects to some extent by adjusting signal strength, they do not provide inherent immunity. C-band is more resilient to weather but offers lower speeds.

Statement 3 is correct. Inter-satellite links (ISLs), often using lasers (optical links) or radio waves, are a critical technology for advanced LEO constellations. These links allow satellites to communicate directly with each other, forming a mesh network in space. This enables data to be routed efficiently across the constellation, reducing the need for data to always travel down to a ground station and then back up. This enhances global coverage, reduces latency further, and improves the resilience of the network.

Solution: b)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Special 301 Report is an annual publication by the World Trade Organization (WTO) that identifies countries with inadequate protection of intellectual property rights (IPR), which negatively impacts global trade. Statement-II: India’s consistent placement on the ‘Priority Watch List’ in the Special 301 Report is primarily due to concerns regarding its pharmaceutical patent laws and high customs duties on ICT goods. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The Special 301 Report is an annual report issued by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), a federal agency of the U.S. government. It is not published by the World Trade Organization (WTO). The report assesses global intellectual property (IP) protection and enforcement from the perspective of U.S. interests and businesses. It is mandated by Section 182 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974. Statement-II is correct. India has indeed been consistently placed on the ‘Priority Watch List’ in the Special 301 Report. The reasons for this inclusion, as highlighted in the 2025 Report summary, include major concerns such as the vague interpretation of the Indian Patents Act (which has significant implications for pharmaceutical patents), weak enforcement against piracy and counterfeiting, lack of a robust framework for protecting trade secrets, and high customs duties on IPR-sensitive goods, including Information and Communication Technology (ICT), solar, and pharmaceuticals. These issues are perceived by the USTR as negatively affecting U.S. businesses. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The Special 301 Report is an annual report issued by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), a federal agency of the U.S. government. It is not published by the World Trade Organization (WTO). The report assesses global intellectual property (IP) protection and enforcement from the perspective of U.S. interests and businesses. It is mandated by Section 182 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974. Statement-II is correct. India has indeed been consistently placed on the ‘Priority Watch List’ in the Special 301 Report. The reasons for this inclusion, as highlighted in the 2025 Report summary, include major concerns such as the vague interpretation of the Indian Patents Act (which has significant implications for pharmaceutical patents), weak enforcement against piracy and counterfeiting, lack of a robust framework for protecting trade secrets, and high customs duties on IPR-sensitive goods, including Information and Communication Technology (ICT), solar, and pharmaceuticals. These issues are perceived by the USTR as negatively affecting U.S. businesses.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Special 301 Report is an annual publication by the World Trade Organization (WTO) that identifies countries with inadequate protection of intellectual property rights (IPR), which negatively impacts global trade.

Statement-II: India’s consistent placement on the ‘Priority Watch List’ in the Special 301 Report is primarily due to concerns regarding its pharmaceutical patent laws and high customs duties on ICT goods.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

Statement-I is incorrect. The Special 301 Report is an annual report issued by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), a federal agency of the U.S. government. It is not published by the World Trade Organization (WTO). The report assesses global intellectual property (IP) protection and enforcement from the perspective of U.S. interests and businesses. It is mandated by Section 182 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974.

Statement-II is correct. India has indeed been consistently placed on the ‘Priority Watch List’ in the Special 301 Report. The reasons for this inclusion, as highlighted in the 2025 Report summary, include major concerns such as the vague interpretation of the Indian Patents Act (which has significant implications for pharmaceutical patents), weak enforcement against piracy and counterfeiting, lack of a robust framework for protecting trade secrets, and high customs duties on IPR-sensitive goods, including Information and Communication Technology (ICT), solar, and pharmaceuticals. These issues are perceived by the USTR as negatively affecting U.S. businesses.

Solution: d)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bandhavgarh National Park: The park is located in the Satpura ranges of Chhattisgarh and is primarily characterized by moist evergreen forests. The park is bisected by the Narmada River, which is the primary perennial water source supporting its rich biodiversity. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Bandhavgarh National Park is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh, nestled within the Vindhya ranges, not the Satpura ranges of Chhattisgarh. Its flora is dominated by dry deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being prominent in valleys, not moist evergreen forests. Statement 2 is incorrect. “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” Therefore, it is not bisected by a major river like the Narmada as its primary perennial water source. Furthermore, while Bandhavgarh is renowned for having the highest density of Royal Bengal Tigers in the world, the text does not make a similar claim for sloth bears. Key fauna mentioned includes tigers, chital, sambar, leopards, etc. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Bandhavgarh National Park is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh, nestled within the Vindhya ranges, not the Satpura ranges of Chhattisgarh. Its flora is dominated by dry deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being prominent in valleys, not moist evergreen forests. Statement 2 is incorrect. “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” Therefore, it is not bisected by a major river like the Narmada as its primary perennial water source. Furthermore, while Bandhavgarh is renowned for having the highest density of Royal Bengal Tigers in the world, the text does not make a similar claim for sloth bears. Key fauna mentioned includes tigers, chital, sambar, leopards, etc.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bandhavgarh National Park:

• The park is located in the Satpura ranges of Chhattisgarh and is primarily characterized by moist evergreen forests.

• The park is bisected by the Narmada River, which is the primary perennial water source supporting its rich biodiversity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Bandhavgarh National Park is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh, nestled within the Vindhya ranges, not the Satpura ranges of Chhattisgarh. Its flora is dominated by dry deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being prominent in valleys, not moist evergreen forests.

Statement 2 is incorrect. “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” Therefore, it is not bisected by a major river like the Narmada as its primary perennial water source. Furthermore, while Bandhavgarh is renowned for having the highest density of Royal Bengal Tigers in the world, the text does not make a similar claim for sloth bears. Key fauna mentioned includes tigers, chital, sambar, leopards, etc.

Solution: d)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) of India: The NSAB was established as a statutory body through an Act of Parliament to provide long-term strategic inputs. The National Security Advisor (NSA) of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the National Security Advisory Board. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) was constituted in December 1998 by the Government of India. It is an advisory body and not a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament. It comprises experts from various fields outside the government who provide long-term strategic inputs on national security issues to the National Security Council (NSC). Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA) is the primary user of the advice tendered by the NSAB and heads the National Security Council Secretariat. However, the NSA does not serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the NSAB. The Chairman of the NSAB is appointed from among its members or can be a distinguished individual from outside the government with relevant expertise. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) was constituted in December 1998 by the Government of India. It is an advisory body and not a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament. It comprises experts from various fields outside the government who provide long-term strategic inputs on national security issues to the National Security Council (NSC). Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA) is the primary user of the advice tendered by the NSAB and heads the National Security Council Secretariat. However, the NSA does not serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the NSAB. The Chairman of the NSAB is appointed from among its members or can be a distinguished individual from outside the government with relevant expertise.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) of India:

• The NSAB was established as a statutory body through an Act of Parliament to provide long-term strategic inputs.

• The National Security Advisor (NSA) of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the National Security Advisory Board.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) was constituted in December 1998 by the Government of India. It is an advisory body and not a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament. It comprises experts from various fields outside the government who provide long-term strategic inputs on national security issues to the National Security Council (NSC).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA) is the primary user of the advice tendered by the NSAB and heads the National Security Council Secretariat. However, the NSA does not serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the NSAB. The Chairman of the NSAB is appointed from among its members or can be a distinguished individual from outside the government with relevant expertise.

Solution: d)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Medical Register (NMR): The National Medical Register (NMR) is established under the provisions of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Enrolment in the NMR is mandatory only for doctors practicing in government healthcare institutions. One of the primary objectives of the NMR is to facilitate the regulation of fee structures for medical consultations across India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Medical Register (NMR) is established under Section 31 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019. The NMC Act, 2019, replaced the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Statement 2 is incorrect. Enrolment in the NMR is mandatory for all registered medical practitioners (RMPs) in India who hold an MBBS degree and are licensed to practice allopathic medicine, irrespective of whether they practice in government or private healthcare institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objectives of the NMR include creating a comprehensive and authentic digital registry of all licensed allopathic doctors, enhancing public trust, improving governance in the healthcare system, and facilitating better credential verification and policy planning. It is not designed to regulate the fee structures for medical consultations, which falls outside its current mandate. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Medical Register (NMR) is established under Section 31 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019. The NMC Act, 2019, replaced the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Statement 2 is incorrect. Enrolment in the NMR is mandatory for all registered medical practitioners (RMPs) in India who hold an MBBS degree and are licensed to practice allopathic medicine, irrespective of whether they practice in government or private healthcare institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objectives of the NMR include creating a comprehensive and authentic digital registry of all licensed allopathic doctors, enhancing public trust, improving governance in the healthcare system, and facilitating better credential verification and policy planning. It is not designed to regulate the fee structures for medical consultations, which falls outside its current mandate.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Medical Register (NMR):

• The National Medical Register (NMR) is established under the provisions of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.

• Enrolment in the NMR is mandatory only for doctors practicing in government healthcare institutions.

• One of the primary objectives of the NMR is to facilitate the regulation of fee structures for medical consultations across India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Medical Register (NMR) is established under Section 31 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019. The NMC Act, 2019, replaced the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Enrolment in the NMR is mandatory for all registered medical practitioners (RMPs) in India who hold an MBBS degree and are licensed to practice allopathic medicine, irrespective of whether they practice in government or private healthcare institutions.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objectives of the NMR include creating a comprehensive and authentic digital registry of all licensed allopathic doctors, enhancing public trust, improving governance in the healthcare system, and facilitating better credential verification and policy planning. It is not designed to regulate the fee structures for medical consultations, which falls outside its current mandate.

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The primary objective of India’s first inter-state cheetah conservation corridor, linking habitats in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, is to: a) Exclusively promote cheetah tourism to generate revenue for local communities. b) Create a fenced enclosure system to prevent cheetahs from entering human settlements. c) Enable seamless and natural movement of cheetahs across a larger landscape, fostering a viable metapopulation. d) Relocate all existing tigers from the involved sanctuaries to make exclusive space for cheetahs. Correct Solution: c) The fundamental purpose of a wildlife corridor, especially for wide-ranging species like cheetahs, is to connect fragmented habitats. This connectivity is crucial for several ecological reasons. It allows animals to move naturally between different protected areas (like Kuno National Park, Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary, and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve in this case). Such movement facilitates dispersal to new territories, access to diverse food and water resources, and, critically for long-term survival, interbreeding between different sub-populations. This genetic exchange is vital for maintaining a healthy and resilient metapopulation, which is a group of spatially separated populations of the same species that interact at some level. Incorrect Solution: c) The fundamental purpose of a wildlife corridor, especially for wide-ranging species like cheetahs, is to connect fragmented habitats. This connectivity is crucial for several ecological reasons. It allows animals to move naturally between different protected areas (like Kuno National Park, Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary, and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve in this case). Such movement facilitates dispersal to new territories, access to diverse food and water resources, and, critically for long-term survival, interbreeding between different sub-populations. This genetic exchange is vital for maintaining a healthy and resilient metapopulation, which is a group of spatially separated populations of the same species that interact at some level.

#### 10. Question

The primary objective of India’s first inter-state cheetah conservation corridor, linking habitats in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, is to:

• a) Exclusively promote cheetah tourism to generate revenue for local communities.

• b) Create a fenced enclosure system to prevent cheetahs from entering human settlements.

• c) Enable seamless and natural movement of cheetahs across a larger landscape, fostering a viable metapopulation.

• d) Relocate all existing tigers from the involved sanctuaries to make exclusive space for cheetahs.

Solution: c)

The fundamental purpose of a wildlife corridor, especially for wide-ranging species like cheetahs, is to connect fragmented habitats. This connectivity is crucial for several ecological reasons. It allows animals to move naturally between different protected areas (like Kuno National Park, Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary, and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve in this case). Such movement facilitates dispersal to new territories, access to diverse food and water resources, and, critically for long-term survival, interbreeding between different sub-populations. This genetic exchange is vital for maintaining a healthy and resilient metapopulation, which is a group of spatially separated populations of the same species that interact at some level.

Solution: c)

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