UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 March 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) satellite systems, consider the following statements: VLEO satellites operate at altitudes where atmospheric drag is negligible compared to traditional Low Earth Orbit (LEO). The proximity of VLEO satellites to the Earth’s surface inherently results in higher signal latency compared to Geostationary satellites. These systems can achieve sub-meter imaging resolution using smaller optical sensors than those required at higher altitudes. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) refers to altitudes between 150 km and 450 km. At these heights, satellites encounter a thin but significant atmosphere, which creates aerodynamic drag. Unlike traditional LEO (500 km – 2,000 km) where drag is minimal, VLEO satellites require constant thrust from advanced propulsion systems (like electric or green propulsion) to maintain their orbit and prevent de-orbiting. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Regarding communication, VLEO satellites offer ultra-low latency. Since the distance a signal travels is significantly shorter than in LEO or Geostationary orbits (35,786 km), the time delay is minimized, making them ideal for real-time strategic communication. Statement 2 is incorrect as it suggests higher latency. The primary advantage of VLEO is superior imaging capabilities. Being much closer to the surface allows these platforms to capture high-resolution, sub-meter images using smaller and less expensive optical sensors. Additionally, VLEO orbits are considered “self-cleaning” because failed satellites are naturally pulled down by atmospheric drag to burn up, reducing long-term space debris. Incorrect Solution: A Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) refers to altitudes between 150 km and 450 km. At these heights, satellites encounter a thin but significant atmosphere, which creates aerodynamic drag. Unlike traditional LEO (500 km – 2,000 km) where drag is minimal, VLEO satellites require constant thrust from advanced propulsion systems (like electric or green propulsion) to maintain their orbit and prevent de-orbiting. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Regarding communication, VLEO satellites offer ultra-low latency. Since the distance a signal travels is significantly shorter than in LEO or Geostationary orbits (35,786 km), the time delay is minimized, making them ideal for real-time strategic communication. Statement 2 is incorrect as it suggests higher latency. The primary advantage of VLEO is superior imaging capabilities. Being much closer to the surface allows these platforms to capture high-resolution, sub-meter images using smaller and less expensive optical sensors. Additionally, VLEO orbits are considered “self-cleaning” because failed satellites are naturally pulled down by atmospheric drag to burn up, reducing long-term space debris.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) satellite systems, consider the following statements:

• VLEO satellites operate at altitudes where atmospheric drag is negligible compared to traditional Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

• The proximity of VLEO satellites to the Earth’s surface inherently results in higher signal latency compared to Geostationary satellites.

• These systems can achieve sub-meter imaging resolution using smaller optical sensors than those required at higher altitudes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) refers to altitudes between 150 km and 450 km. At these heights, satellites encounter a thin but significant atmosphere, which creates aerodynamic drag. Unlike traditional LEO (500 km – 2,000 km) where drag is minimal, VLEO satellites require constant thrust from advanced propulsion systems (like electric or green propulsion) to maintain their orbit and prevent de-orbiting. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Regarding communication, VLEO satellites offer ultra-low latency. Since the distance a signal travels is significantly shorter than in LEO or Geostationary orbits (35,786 km), the time delay is minimized, making them ideal for real-time strategic communication. Statement 2 is incorrect as it suggests higher latency.

• The primary advantage of VLEO is superior imaging capabilities. Being much closer to the surface allows these platforms to capture high-resolution, sub-meter images using smaller and less expensive optical sensors. Additionally, VLEO orbits are considered “self-cleaning” because failed satellites are naturally pulled down by atmospheric drag to burn up, reducing long-term space debris.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the price determination of Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) and Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) in India, consider the following statements: India meets more than half of its total LPG requirement through domestic production by Oil Marketing Companies. The price of LNG in the spot market is often influenced by the Japan Korea Marker (JKM) index. Domestic LPG and LNG prices are generally indexed to or float alongside global crude oil prices. Natural gas price spikes have a direct impact on the production cost of urea due to its use in ammonia synthesis. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The pricing of gaseous fuels in India is a complex interplay of global benchmarks and domestic logistics. Statement 1 is incorrect because 60% of India’s LPG supply is imported, primarily from Saudi Arabia and Qatar, while only 40% is produced domestically by OMCs like IOC and BPCL. Statement 2 is correct; the Japan Korea Marker (JKM) is the leading price benchmark for LNG delivered to Northeast Asia and is heavily utilized in spot market transactions involving Indian entities. Statement 3 is correct as both LNG and LPG prices globally are typically indexed to crude oil prices. When crude prices surge due to geopolitical tensions (like the West Asia conflict), gas prices usually follow suit. Statement 4 is correct because nearly 30% of natural gas is utilized as a feedstock to produce ammonia, which is a critical component for fertilizers like urea. Therefore, high gas prices can inflate agricultural input costs. Furthermore, India’s reliance on specialized cryogenic ships for LNG transport means that rising insurance premiums during wartime further increase the landed cost of the fuel. Incorrect Solution: C The pricing of gaseous fuels in India is a complex interplay of global benchmarks and domestic logistics. Statement 1 is incorrect because 60% of India’s LPG supply is imported, primarily from Saudi Arabia and Qatar, while only 40% is produced domestically by OMCs like IOC and BPCL. Statement 2 is correct; the Japan Korea Marker (JKM) is the leading price benchmark for LNG delivered to Northeast Asia and is heavily utilized in spot market transactions involving Indian entities. Statement 3 is correct as both LNG and LPG prices globally are typically indexed to crude oil prices. When crude prices surge due to geopolitical tensions (like the West Asia conflict), gas prices usually follow suit. Statement 4 is correct because nearly 30% of natural gas is utilized as a feedstock to produce ammonia, which is a critical component for fertilizers like urea. Therefore, high gas prices can inflate agricultural input costs. Furthermore, India’s reliance on specialized cryogenic ships for LNG transport means that rising insurance premiums during wartime further increase the landed cost of the fuel.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the price determination of Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) and Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) in India, consider the following statements:

• India meets more than half of its total LPG requirement through domestic production by Oil Marketing Companies.

• The price of LNG in the spot market is often influenced by the Japan Korea Marker (JKM) index.

• Domestic LPG and LNG prices are generally indexed to or float alongside global crude oil prices.

• Natural gas price spikes have a direct impact on the production cost of urea due to its use in ammonia synthesis.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• The pricing of gaseous fuels in India is a complex interplay of global benchmarks and domestic logistics.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because 60% of India’s LPG supply is imported, primarily from Saudi Arabia and Qatar, while only 40% is produced domestically by OMCs like IOC and BPCL.

• Statement 2 is correct; the Japan Korea Marker (JKM) is the leading price benchmark for LNG delivered to Northeast Asia and is heavily utilized in spot market transactions involving Indian entities.

• Statement 3 is correct as both LNG and LPG prices globally are typically indexed to crude oil prices. When crude prices surge due to geopolitical tensions (like the West Asia conflict), gas prices usually follow suit.

• Statement 4 is correct because nearly 30% of natural gas is utilized as a feedstock to produce ammonia, which is a critical component for fertilizers like urea. Therefore, high gas prices can inflate agricultural input costs. Furthermore, India’s reliance on specialized cryogenic ships for LNG transport means that rising insurance premiums during wartime further increase the landed cost of the fuel.

Solution: C

• The pricing of gaseous fuels in India is a complex interplay of global benchmarks and domestic logistics.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because 60% of India’s LPG supply is imported, primarily from Saudi Arabia and Qatar, while only 40% is produced domestically by OMCs like IOC and BPCL.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955, consider the following statements: The Act enables the Central Government to regulate the production and distribution of commodities listed in its Schedule. Commodities can be added to or removed from the Schedule only through a Constitutional Amendment. The Act can be invoked to fix stock limits for traders to prevent hoarding during extraordinary price rises. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, is a vital legislative tool used to protect consumers from artificial scarcity and price volatility. Statement 1 is correct; it empowers the government to control the supply, distribution, and pricing of items deemed essential. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Central Government has the power to amend the Schedule to add or remove commodities through a simple executive notification in the Official Gazette, usually in consultation with State Governments. It does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary mechanisms of the ECA is the imposition of stock limits, which prevents wholesalers and retailers from hoarding goods to create speculative price hikes. The Act is typically triggered during wars, famines, or natural calamities. For instance, it was used during the COVID-19 pandemic for masks and is invoked if retail prices of non-perishable agricultural produce rise by 50% or horticultural produce by 100%. Violations can lead to imprisonment for up to seven years and the confiscation of the commodities and the vehicles used for their transport. Incorrect Solution: B The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, is a vital legislative tool used to protect consumers from artificial scarcity and price volatility. Statement 1 is correct; it empowers the government to control the supply, distribution, and pricing of items deemed essential. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Central Government has the power to amend the Schedule to add or remove commodities through a simple executive notification in the Official Gazette, usually in consultation with State Governments. It does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary mechanisms of the ECA is the imposition of stock limits, which prevents wholesalers and retailers from hoarding goods to create speculative price hikes. The Act is typically triggered during wars, famines, or natural calamities. For instance, it was used during the COVID-19 pandemic for masks and is invoked if retail prices of non-perishable agricultural produce rise by 50% or horticultural produce by 100%. Violations can lead to imprisonment for up to seven years and the confiscation of the commodities and the vehicles used for their transport.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955, consider the following statements:

• The Act enables the Central Government to regulate the production and distribution of commodities listed in its Schedule.

• Commodities can be added to or removed from the Schedule only through a Constitutional Amendment.

• The Act can be invoked to fix stock limits for traders to prevent hoarding during extraordinary price rises.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, is a vital legislative tool used to protect consumers from artificial scarcity and price volatility.

• Statement 1 is correct; it empowers the government to control the supply, distribution, and pricing of items deemed essential.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Central Government has the power to amend the Schedule to add or remove commodities through a simple executive notification in the Official Gazette, usually in consultation with State Governments. It does not require a Constitutional Amendment.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary mechanisms of the ECA is the imposition of stock limits, which prevents wholesalers and retailers from hoarding goods to create speculative price hikes. The Act is typically triggered during wars, famines, or natural calamities. For instance, it was used during the COVID-19 pandemic for masks and is invoked if retail prices of non-perishable agricultural produce rise by 50% or horticultural produce by 100%. Violations can lead to imprisonment for up to seven years and the confiscation of the commodities and the vehicles used for their transport.

Solution: B

• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, is a vital legislative tool used to protect consumers from artificial scarcity and price volatility.

• Statement 1 is correct; it empowers the government to control the supply, distribution, and pricing of items deemed essential.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Leprosy: It is a chronic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. The disease is highly infectious and can be transmitted through casual skin-to-skin contact. Chile was recently verified by the WHO as the first country in the world to eliminate leprosy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s Disease, is caused by the slow-growing bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to historical myths, leprosy is not highly infectious. It is transmitted via droplets from the nose and mouth during close and frequent contact with untreated cases, rather than casual skin contact. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Chile was recently verified by the WHO as having eliminated leprosy, it is the first country in the Americas and the second globally to achieve this status (the first was likely a different nation, as Chile is explicitly cited as the second). The disease has a very long incubation period, averaging 5 years but sometimes taking 20 years for symptoms to appear. Since the 1980s, the WHO has provided Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT)—a combination of rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine—for free. If treated early, the disease is 100% curable, preventing permanent damage to the nerves, skin, and eyes. Historically, the disease was localized in Chile on Rapa Nui (Easter Island) before being eradicated through strict public health measures. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s Disease, is caused by the slow-growing bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to historical myths, leprosy is not highly infectious. It is transmitted via droplets from the nose and mouth during close and frequent contact with untreated cases, rather than casual skin contact. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Chile was recently verified by the WHO as having eliminated leprosy, it is the first country in the Americas and the second globally to achieve this status (the first was likely a different nation, as Chile is explicitly cited as the second). The disease has a very long incubation period, averaging 5 years but sometimes taking 20 years for symptoms to appear. Since the 1980s, the WHO has provided Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT)—a combination of rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine—for free. If treated early, the disease is 100% curable, preventing permanent damage to the nerves, skin, and eyes. Historically, the disease was localized in Chile on Rapa Nui (Easter Island) before being eradicated through strict public health measures.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Leprosy:

• It is a chronic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.

• The disease is highly infectious and can be transmitted through casual skin-to-skin contact.

• Chile was recently verified by the WHO as the first country in the world to eliminate leprosy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s Disease, is caused by the slow-growing bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to historical myths, leprosy is not highly infectious. It is transmitted via droplets from the nose and mouth during close and frequent contact with untreated cases, rather than casual skin contact.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While Chile was recently verified by the WHO as having eliminated leprosy, it is the first country in the Americas and the second globally to achieve this status (the first was likely a different nation, as Chile is explicitly cited as the second).

• The disease has a very long incubation period, averaging 5 years but sometimes taking 20 years for symptoms to appear. Since the 1980s, the WHO has provided Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT)—a combination of rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine—for free. If treated early, the disease is 100% curable, preventing permanent damage to the nerves, skin, and eyes. Historically, the disease was localized in Chile on Rapa Nui (Easter Island) before being eradicated through strict public health measures.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s Disease, is caused by the slow-growing bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) satellites are considered a “self-cleaning” technology regarding space debris. Statement-II: The significant atmospheric drag at altitudes below 450 km ensures that failed satellites naturally de-orbit and burn up in the atmosphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Space debris is a growing concern in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), where defunct satellites can remain for decades or centuries. However, satellites in Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO)—typically between 150 km and 450 km—operate in a region where the Earth’s atmosphere is thin but still dense enough to exert aerodynamic drag. Statement-I is correct because this drag acts as a natural “janitor.” If a VLEO satellite fails or its propulsion system stops providing the necessary thrust to maintain its altitude, the drag will rapidly pull the satellite lower into the denser layers of the atmosphere. Statement-II is correct and provides the direct physical reason for Statement-I. Upon entering the denser atmosphere, the friction generates intense heat, causing the satellite to burn up completely. This prevents the accumulation of “dead” assets in orbit, making VLEO a sustainable choice for satellite constellations compared to higher orbits where satellites might require active de-orbiting maneuvers or remain as hazardous debris for long periods. Incorrect Solution: A Space debris is a growing concern in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), where defunct satellites can remain for decades or centuries. However, satellites in Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO)—typically between 150 km and 450 km—operate in a region where the Earth’s atmosphere is thin but still dense enough to exert aerodynamic drag. Statement-I is correct because this drag acts as a natural “janitor.” If a VLEO satellite fails or its propulsion system stops providing the necessary thrust to maintain its altitude, the drag will rapidly pull the satellite lower into the denser layers of the atmosphere. Statement-II is correct and provides the direct physical reason for Statement-I. Upon entering the denser atmosphere, the friction generates intense heat, causing the satellite to burn up completely. This prevents the accumulation of “dead” assets in orbit, making VLEO a sustainable choice for satellite constellations compared to higher orbits where satellites might require active de-orbiting maneuvers or remain as hazardous debris for long periods.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) satellites are considered a “self-cleaning” technology regarding space debris.

Statement-II: The significant atmospheric drag at altitudes below 450 km ensures that failed satellites naturally de-orbit and burn up in the atmosphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Space debris is a growing concern in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), where defunct satellites can remain for decades or centuries. However, satellites in Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO)—typically between 150 km and 450 km—operate in a region where the Earth’s atmosphere is thin but still dense enough to exert aerodynamic drag.

• Statement-I is correct because this drag acts as a natural “janitor.” If a VLEO satellite fails or its propulsion system stops providing the necessary thrust to maintain its altitude, the drag will rapidly pull the satellite lower into the denser layers of the atmosphere.

• Statement-II is correct and provides the direct physical reason for Statement-I. Upon entering the denser atmosphere, the friction generates intense heat, causing the satellite to burn up completely. This prevents the accumulation of “dead” assets in orbit, making VLEO a sustainable choice for satellite constellations compared to higher orbits where satellites might require active de-orbiting maneuvers or remain as hazardous debris for long periods.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Chile: It is a landlocked country located in western South America. The Atacama Desert, located in the north, is considered the driest non-polar place on Earth. The country’s central valley has a Mediterranean climate and is the most populated region. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Chile’s geography is unique due to its long, narrow shape. Statement 1 is incorrect because Chile is not landlocked. It has a massive coastline along the Pacific Ocean to the west and is bordered by Peru, Bolivia, and Argentina. To the south lies the Drake Passage. Statement 2 is correct; the Atacama Desert in northern Chile is globally famous for its extreme aridity, receiving almost no rainfall, which makes it the driest non-polar region on the planet. Statement 3 is correct. The Central Valley provides a stark contrast to the desert north and the icy south. Its Mediterranean climate (cool, wet winters and warm, dry summers) makes it highly suitable for agriculture and viticulture. Consequently, this region, which includes the capital city of Santiago, houses the vast majority of the country’s population. Incorrect Solution: B Chile’s geography is unique due to its long, narrow shape. Statement 1 is incorrect because Chile is not landlocked. It has a massive coastline along the Pacific Ocean to the west and is bordered by Peru, Bolivia, and Argentina. To the south lies the Drake Passage. Statement 2 is correct; the Atacama Desert in northern Chile is globally famous for its extreme aridity, receiving almost no rainfall, which makes it the driest non-polar region on the planet. Statement 3 is correct. The Central Valley provides a stark contrast to the desert north and the icy south. Its Mediterranean climate (cool, wet winters and warm, dry summers) makes it highly suitable for agriculture and viticulture. Consequently, this region, which includes the capital city of Santiago, houses the vast majority of the country’s population.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Chile:

• It is a landlocked country located in western South America.

• The Atacama Desert, located in the north, is considered the driest non-polar place on Earth.

• The country’s central valley has a Mediterranean climate and is the most populated region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Chile’s geography is unique due to its long, narrow shape.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because Chile is not landlocked. It has a massive coastline along the Pacific Ocean to the west and is bordered by Peru, Bolivia, and Argentina. To the south lies the Drake Passage.

• Statement 2 is correct; the Atacama Desert in northern Chile is globally famous for its extreme aridity, receiving almost no rainfall, which makes it the driest non-polar region on the planet.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Central Valley provides a stark contrast to the desert north and the icy south. Its Mediterranean climate (cool, wet winters and warm, dry summers) makes it highly suitable for agriculture and viticulture. Consequently, this region, which includes the capital city of Santiago, houses the vast majority of the country’s population.

Solution: B

• Chile’s geography is unique due to its long, narrow shape.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points In the context of the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955, consider the following statements: The Act was invoked during the COVID-19 pandemic to regulate the prices of masks and sanitizers. The government can fix the quantity of a commodity any person can hold in stock under this Act. Contravention of orders under the Act can lead to imprisonment in addition to fines. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) is a powerful tool for market intervention. Statement 1 is correct; during the COVID-19 pandemic, the government added hand sanitizers and masks to the Schedule of the Act to prevent profiteering and ensure these critical items remained affordable and available to the general public. Statement 2 is correct; the power to fix stock limits is a core feature of the Act. It allows the government to specify exactly how much of an essential item (like wheat, pulses, or oilseeds) a trader or wholesaler can store. This is meant to discourage the practice of holding onto stocks to create a “supply crunch” that artificially drives up prices. Statement 3 is correct; the legal teeth of the ECA are significant. Under Section 3, contravention of government orders can result in a prison term ranging from three months to seven years, in addition to fines. Furthermore, authorities have the power to seize and confiscate the commodities, along with any vehicles, vessels, or animals used in the transport of the illegal stock, ensuring a strong deterrent against black marketing. Incorrect Solution: C The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) is a powerful tool for market intervention. Statement 1 is correct; during the COVID-19 pandemic, the government added hand sanitizers and masks to the Schedule of the Act to prevent profiteering and ensure these critical items remained affordable and available to the general public. Statement 2 is correct; the power to fix stock limits is a core feature of the Act. It allows the government to specify exactly how much of an essential item (like wheat, pulses, or oilseeds) a trader or wholesaler can store. This is meant to discourage the practice of holding onto stocks to create a “supply crunch” that artificially drives up prices. Statement 3 is correct; the legal teeth of the ECA are significant. Under Section 3, contravention of government orders can result in a prison term ranging from three months to seven years, in addition to fines. Furthermore, authorities have the power to seize and confiscate the commodities, along with any vehicles, vessels, or animals used in the transport of the illegal stock, ensuring a strong deterrent against black marketing.

#### 7. Question

In the context of the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955, consider the following statements:

• The Act was invoked during the COVID-19 pandemic to regulate the prices of masks and sanitizers.

• The government can fix the quantity of a commodity any person can hold in stock under this Act.

• Contravention of orders under the Act can lead to imprisonment in addition to fines.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) is a powerful tool for market intervention.

• Statement 1 is correct; during the COVID-19 pandemic, the government added hand sanitizers and masks to the Schedule of the Act to prevent profiteering and ensure these critical items remained affordable and available to the general public.

• Statement 2 is correct; the power to fix stock limits is a core feature of the Act. It allows the government to specify exactly how much of an essential item (like wheat, pulses, or oilseeds) a trader or wholesaler can store. This is meant to discourage the practice of holding onto stocks to create a “supply crunch” that artificially drives up prices.

• Statement 3 is correct; the legal teeth of the ECA are significant. Under Section 3, contravention of government orders can result in a prison term ranging from three months to seven years, in addition to fines. Furthermore, authorities have the power to seize and confiscate the commodities, along with any vehicles, vessels, or animals used in the transport of the illegal stock, ensuring a strong deterrent against black marketing.

Solution: C

• The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) is a powerful tool for market intervention.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: LNG is transported in specialized cryogenic ships rather than standard tankers. Statement-II: Natural gas must be cooled to below –160°C to turn it into a liquid state for efficient long-distance maritime transport. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Natural gas in its gaseous state occupies a vast volume, making it economically unfeasible to transport across oceans in large quantities. To overcome this, it is converted into Liquified Natural Gas (LNG). Statement-II is correct; the liquefaction process involves cooling the gas to approximately –161°C (–258°F) at atmospheric pressure. This reduces its volume by about 600 times, allowing for much denser energy storage. Statement-I is also correct and is directly explained by Statement-II. Because the LNG must be maintained at these extreme sub-zero temperatures throughout the voyage to prevent it from turning back into gas (boil-off), it cannot be carried in standard oil tankers. Instead, it requires specialized cryogenic ships equipped with heavily insulated tanks (often spherical or membrane-type). These ships act like giant “thermos flasks.” The high cost of building and operating these specialized vessels, combined with the energy required for the liquefaction and regasification processes, is a major factor in the final price of LNG. Incorrect Solution: A Natural gas in its gaseous state occupies a vast volume, making it economically unfeasible to transport across oceans in large quantities. To overcome this, it is converted into Liquified Natural Gas (LNG). Statement-II is correct; the liquefaction process involves cooling the gas to approximately –161°C (–258°F) at atmospheric pressure. This reduces its volume by about 600 times, allowing for much denser energy storage. Statement-I is also correct and is directly explained by Statement-II. Because the LNG must be maintained at these extreme sub-zero temperatures throughout the voyage to prevent it from turning back into gas (boil-off), it cannot be carried in standard oil tankers. Instead, it requires specialized cryogenic ships equipped with heavily insulated tanks (often spherical or membrane-type). These ships act like giant “thermos flasks.” The high cost of building and operating these specialized vessels, combined with the energy required for the liquefaction and regasification processes, is a major factor in the final price of LNG.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: LNG is transported in specialized cryogenic ships rather than standard tankers.

Statement-II: Natural gas must be cooled to below –160°C to turn it into a liquid state for efficient long-distance maritime transport.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Natural gas in its gaseous state occupies a vast volume, making it economically unfeasible to transport across oceans in large quantities. To overcome this, it is converted into Liquified Natural Gas (LNG).

• Statement-II is correct; the liquefaction process involves cooling the gas to approximately –161°C (–258°F) at atmospheric pressure. This reduces its volume by about 600 times, allowing for much denser energy storage.

• Statement-I is also correct and is directly explained by Statement-II. Because the LNG must be maintained at these extreme sub-zero temperatures throughout the voyage to prevent it from turning back into gas (boil-off), it cannot be carried in standard oil tankers. Instead, it requires specialized cryogenic ships equipped with heavily insulated tanks (often spherical or membrane-type). These ships act like giant “thermos flasks.” The high cost of building and operating these specialized vessels, combined with the energy required for the liquefaction and regasification processes, is a major factor in the final price of LNG.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO), consider the following statements: VLEO satellites require constant thrust to counter aerodynamic drag. They offer better optical resolution compared to satellites in higher orbits. They have a longer orbital life than LEO satellites because they are closer to Earth’s gravity. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D VLEO (Very Low Earth Orbit) is a challenging but rewarding operational environment. Statement 1 is correct; because VLEO exists within the outer fringes of the atmosphere (up to 450 km), the aerodynamic drag is high enough to slow a satellite down, causing it to lose altitude. To stay in orbit, these satellites must use propulsion systems (like the ones being developed by Bellatrix Aerospace) to provide a constant forward thrust that balances the drag. Statement 2 is correct. Simple physics dictates that being closer to the target (Earth) allows for higher resolution Satellites in VLEO can achieve the same or better resolution with smaller, lighter, and cheaper cameras than those in LEO or Medium Earth Orbit. Statement 3 is incorrect. VLEO satellites actually have a shorter natural orbital life compared to LEO satellites if their propulsion fails. While a LEO satellite at 800 km might stay in orbit for decades after it dies, a VLEO satellite will be dragged down by the atmosphere and burn up within weeks or months. This “short life” is actually a benefit for space debris management, but technically, the orbital duration is shorter, not longer. Incorrect Solution: D VLEO (Very Low Earth Orbit) is a challenging but rewarding operational environment. Statement 1 is correct; because VLEO exists within the outer fringes of the atmosphere (up to 450 km), the aerodynamic drag is high enough to slow a satellite down, causing it to lose altitude. To stay in orbit, these satellites must use propulsion systems (like the ones being developed by Bellatrix Aerospace) to provide a constant forward thrust that balances the drag. Statement 2 is correct. Simple physics dictates that being closer to the target (Earth) allows for higher resolution Satellites in VLEO can achieve the same or better resolution with smaller, lighter, and cheaper cameras than those in LEO or Medium Earth Orbit. Statement 3 is incorrect. VLEO satellites actually have a shorter natural orbital life compared to LEO satellites if their propulsion fails. While a LEO satellite at 800 km might stay in orbit for decades after it dies, a VLEO satellite will be dragged down by the atmosphere and burn up within weeks or months. This “short life” is actually a benefit for space debris management, but technically, the orbital duration is shorter, not longer.

#### 9. Question

With reference to Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO), consider the following statements:

• VLEO satellites require constant thrust to counter aerodynamic drag.

• They offer better optical resolution compared to satellites in higher orbits.

• They have a longer orbital life than LEO satellites because they are closer to Earth’s gravity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• VLEO (Very Low Earth Orbit) is a challenging but rewarding operational environment.

• Statement 1 is correct; because VLEO exists within the outer fringes of the atmosphere (up to 450 km), the aerodynamic drag is high enough to slow a satellite down, causing it to lose altitude. To stay in orbit, these satellites must use propulsion systems (like the ones being developed by Bellatrix Aerospace) to provide a constant forward thrust that balances the drag.

• Statement 2 is correct. Simple physics dictates that being closer to the target (Earth) allows for higher resolution Satellites in VLEO can achieve the same or better resolution with smaller, lighter, and cheaper cameras than those in LEO or Medium Earth Orbit.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. VLEO satellites actually have a shorter natural orbital life compared to LEO satellites if their propulsion fails. While a LEO satellite at 800 km might stay in orbit for decades after it dies, a VLEO satellite will be dragged down by the atmosphere and burn up within weeks or months. This “short life” is actually a benefit for space debris management, but technically, the orbital duration is shorter, not longer.

Solution: D

• VLEO (Very Low Earth Orbit) is a challenging but rewarding operational environment.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The ‘Torkham’ border crossing, recently in the news due to armed conflict, is located between: (a) India and Myanmar (b) Armenia and Azerbaijan (c) Iran and Iraq (d) Pakistan and Afghanistan Correct Solution: D The Torkham border crossing is one of the most significant and busiest transit points between Pakistan and Afghanistan. It is located along the Durand Line, the 2,640 km border that Afghanistan has historically refused to recognize as an international boundary. Recently, Torkham has become a major flashpoint in the escalated conflict between the Pakistan Armed Forces and the Afghan Taliban. The tension arose from issues like border fencing and Pakistan’s accusations that the Taliban provides safe havens for the Tehrik-i-Taliban Pakistan (TTP). In response to alleged unprovoked aggression, Pakistan launched Operation Ghazab lil-Haq, which included airstrikes reaching as far as Kabul. The conflict has transitioned from intermittent skirmishes to a full-scale conventional military confrontation involving tanks and heavy artillery. The UN has flagged Torkham as a critical area where civilian populations are severely impacted by the hostilities. This region is strategically sensitive, and a prolonged war risks involving external powers like China or Russia, given the nuclear-sensitive nature of the neighborhood and Pakistan’s fragile economic and security situation. Torkham remains a barometer for the state of bilateral relations between these two neighbors. Incorrect Solution: D The Torkham border crossing is one of the most significant and busiest transit points between Pakistan and Afghanistan. It is located along the Durand Line, the 2,640 km border that Afghanistan has historically refused to recognize as an international boundary. Recently, Torkham has become a major flashpoint in the escalated conflict between the Pakistan Armed Forces and the Afghan Taliban. The tension arose from issues like border fencing and Pakistan’s accusations that the Taliban provides safe havens for the Tehrik-i-Taliban Pakistan (TTP). In response to alleged unprovoked aggression, Pakistan launched Operation Ghazab lil-Haq, which included airstrikes reaching as far as Kabul. The conflict has transitioned from intermittent skirmishes to a full-scale conventional military confrontation involving tanks and heavy artillery. The UN has flagged Torkham as a critical area where civilian populations are severely impacted by the hostilities. This region is strategically sensitive, and a prolonged war risks involving external powers like China or Russia, given the nuclear-sensitive nature of the neighborhood and Pakistan’s fragile economic and security situation. Torkham remains a barometer for the state of bilateral relations between these two neighbors.

#### 10. Question

The ‘Torkham’ border crossing, recently in the news due to armed conflict, is located between:

• (a) India and Myanmar

• (b) Armenia and Azerbaijan

• (c) Iran and Iraq

• (d) Pakistan and Afghanistan

Solution: D

• The Torkham border crossing is one of the most significant and busiest transit points between Pakistan and Afghanistan. It is located along the Durand Line, the 2,640 km border that Afghanistan has historically refused to recognize as an international boundary.

• Recently, Torkham has become a major flashpoint in the escalated conflict between the Pakistan Armed Forces and the Afghan Taliban. The tension arose from issues like border fencing and Pakistan’s accusations that the Taliban provides safe havens for the Tehrik-i-Taliban Pakistan (TTP). In response to alleged unprovoked aggression, Pakistan launched Operation Ghazab lil-Haq, which included airstrikes reaching as far as Kabul.

• The conflict has transitioned from intermittent skirmishes to a full-scale conventional military confrontation involving tanks and heavy artillery. The UN has flagged Torkham as a critical area where civilian populations are severely impacted by the hostilities. This region is strategically sensitive, and a prolonged war risks involving external powers like China or Russia, given the nuclear-sensitive nature of the neighborhood and Pakistan’s fragile economic and security situation. Torkham remains a barometer for the state of bilateral relations between these two neighbors.

Solution: D

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