UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 January 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Saint Narahari Tirtha: He was a prominent disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy. He composed devotional songs in Kannada under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. He established the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Saint Narahari Tirtha was a disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy. He also wrote Kannada devotional songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Statement 3 is incorrect as he did not establish the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga. About Narahari Tirtha: Born in: Circa 1243 CE, believed to hail from Chikakolu (modern-day Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh). Place: Andhra Pradesh or Odisha (Kalinga), significant in both regions for his contributions. Guru: Shri Madhvacharya (Ananda Tīrtha), the founder of Dvaita philosophy. Philosophy and Contributions: Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma. Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma. Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance. Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism. Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya. Pen Name: Raghukulatilaka. Incorrect Solution: b) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Saint Narahari Tirtha was a disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy. He also wrote Kannada devotional songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Statement 3 is incorrect as he did not establish the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga. About Narahari Tirtha: Born in: Circa 1243 CE, believed to hail from Chikakolu (modern-day Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh). Place: Andhra Pradesh or Odisha (Kalinga), significant in both regions for his contributions. Guru: Shri Madhvacharya (Ananda Tīrtha), the founder of Dvaita philosophy. Philosophy and Contributions: Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma. Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma. Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance. Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism. Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya. Pen Name: Raghukulatilaka.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements about Saint Narahari Tirtha:
• He was a prominent disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy.
• He composed devotional songs in Kannada under the pen name Raghukulatilaka.
• He established the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Saint Narahari Tirtha was a disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy. He also wrote Kannada devotional songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Statement 3 is incorrect as he did not establish the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga.
About Narahari Tirtha:
• Born in: Circa 1243 CE, believed to hail from Chikakolu (modern-day Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh).
• Place: Andhra Pradesh or Odisha (Kalinga), significant in both regions for his contributions.
• Guru: Shri Madhvacharya (Ananda Tīrtha), the founder of Dvaita philosophy.
• Philosophy and Contributions: Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma. Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma. Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance. Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism. Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya.
• Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma.
• Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma.
• Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka.
• Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance.
• Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism.
• Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya.
• Pen Name: Raghukulatilaka.
Solution: b)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Saint Narahari Tirtha was a disciple of Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita philosophy. He also wrote Kannada devotional songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Statement 3 is incorrect as he did not establish the first Vaishnavite educational institution in Kalinga.
About Narahari Tirtha:
• Born in: Circa 1243 CE, believed to hail from Chikakolu (modern-day Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh).
• Place: Andhra Pradesh or Odisha (Kalinga), significant in both regions for his contributions.
• Guru: Shri Madhvacharya (Ananda Tīrtha), the founder of Dvaita philosophy.
• Philosophy and Contributions: Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma. Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma. Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka. Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance. Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism. Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya.
• Dvaita Philosophy: A prominent disciple of Madhvacharya, Narahari Tīrtha composed commentaries and worked to propagate Vaishnavism and Bhagavata Dharma.
• Administrative Role: Served as a minister in the Kalinga Kingdom for 12 years, guiding rulers to align governance with Sanatana Dharma.
• Haridasa Movement: Considered the progenitor of this movement, he popularized devotion through Kannada songs under the pen name Raghukulatilaka.
• Cultural Legacy: Promoted Yakshagana Bayalata (dance-drama) and classical Kuchipudi dance.
• Educational Reforms: Transformed the Simhachalam temple into a renowned educational hub for Vaishnavism.
• Religious Leadership: Played a pivotal role in acquiring and safeguarding sacred idols like Moolarama and Moola Sita for Madhvacharya.
• Pen Name: Raghukulatilaka.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding consumer access to renewable energy under the Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022: Consumers can demand green power from their Discoms. Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates. Open access is available only to commercial and industrial users. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: a) Consumers can demand green power from Discoms and are eligible for green certificates. Statement 3 is incorrect because open access is available to a broader range of consumers, not just commercial and industrial users. About Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022: Launched by: Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022. Key Features: Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants. Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate. Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed. Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity. Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it. Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption. RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included. Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates. Incorrect Solution: a) Consumers can demand green power from Discoms and are eligible for green certificates. Statement 3 is incorrect because open access is available to a broader range of consumers, not just commercial and industrial users. About Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022: Launched by: Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022. Key Features: Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants. Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate. Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed. Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity. Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it. Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption. RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included. Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding consumer access to renewable energy under the Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022:
• Consumers can demand green power from their Discoms.
• Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
• Open access is available only to commercial and industrial users.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• a) 1 and 2
• c) 2 and 3
• d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: a)
Consumers can demand green power from Discoms and are eligible for green certificates.
Statement 3 is incorrect because open access is available to a broader range of consumers, not just commercial and industrial users.
About Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022:
• Launched by: Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022.
• Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022.
• Key Features: Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants. Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate. Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed. Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity. Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it. Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption. RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included. Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
• Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants.
• Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate.
• Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed.
• Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity.
• Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it.
• Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption.
• RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included.
• Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
Solution: a)
Consumers can demand green power from Discoms and are eligible for green certificates.
Statement 3 is incorrect because open access is available to a broader range of consumers, not just commercial and industrial users.
About Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022:
• Launched by: Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022.
• Ministry of Power, Government of India, in 2022.
• Key Features: Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants. Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate. Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed. Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity. Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it. Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption. RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included. Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
• Objective: Promote renewable energy generation and reduce emissions, including energy from waste-to-energy plants.
• Consumer Access: Open access limit reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW, allowing small consumers to participate.
• Approval Process: Streamlined with a national portal and a 15-day timeline for approval; deemed approval if delayed.
• Charges: Defined charges include transmission, wheeling, cross-subsidy, and others to bring clarity.
• Green Power Demand: Consumers can demand green power from Discoms, which are obligated to provide it.
• Incentives: Caps on cross-subsidy surcharges and removal of additional surcharges encourage green energy adoption.
• RPO Uniformity: Uniform Renewable Purchase Obligations for all entities; green hydrogen and ammonia are included.
• Green Certificates: Consumers using green power are eligible for green certificates.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which unique feature distinguishes the Anji Khad Bridge from other railway bridges in India? a) It is India's longest railway bridge. b) It is located at the highest altitude for any rail bridge in India. c) It is built entirely of prefabricated steel components. d) It is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge. Correct Solution: d) The Anji Khad Bridge is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, marking a significant engineering milestone. About Anji Khad Bridge: Located in: Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir. Connects: Katra and Reasi as part of the USBRL Project. Valley Location: Spans the Anji River Valley at a height of 331 meters from the riverbed. Built by: Indian Railways. Features: Length: 725.5 meters. Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters). Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation. Incorrect Solution: d) The Anji Khad Bridge is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, marking a significant engineering milestone. About Anji Khad Bridge: Located in: Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir. Connects: Katra and Reasi as part of the USBRL Project. Valley Location: Spans the Anji River Valley at a height of 331 meters from the riverbed. Built by: Indian Railways. Features: Length: 725.5 meters. Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters). Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation.
#### 3. Question
Which unique feature distinguishes the Anji Khad Bridge from other railway bridges in India?
• a) It is India's longest railway bridge.
• b) It is located at the highest altitude for any rail bridge in India.
• c) It is built entirely of prefabricated steel components.
• d) It is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge.
Solution: d)
The Anji Khad Bridge is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, marking a significant engineering milestone.
About Anji Khad Bridge:
• Located in: Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.
• Connects: Katra and Reasi as part of the USBRL Project.
• Valley Location: Spans the Anji River Valley at a height of 331 meters from the riverbed.
• Built by: Indian Railways.
• Features: Length: 725.5 meters. Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters). Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation.
• Length: 725.5 meters.
• Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters).
• Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation.
Solution: d)
The Anji Khad Bridge is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, marking a significant engineering milestone.
About Anji Khad Bridge:
• Located in: Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.
• Connects: Katra and Reasi as part of the USBRL Project.
• Valley Location: Spans the Anji River Valley at a height of 331 meters from the riverbed.
• Built by: Indian Railways.
• Features: Length: 725.5 meters. Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters). Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation.
• Length: 725.5 meters.
• Cable-stayed span: 473.25 meters supported by 96 cables (length: 82-295 meters).
• Main Pylon: 193 meters high from the foundation.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which geographical feature significantly influences the climate and landscape of Burkina Faso? a) Sahel region b) Congo Basin c) Ethiopian Highlands d) Rift Valley Correct Solution: a) Burkina Faso lies within the Sahel region, characterized by semi-arid landscapes and a transitional climate between the Sahara Desert and the savannah. Incorrect Solution: a) Burkina Faso lies within the Sahel region, characterized by semi-arid landscapes and a transitional climate between the Sahara Desert and the savannah.
#### 4. Question
Which geographical feature significantly influences the climate and landscape of Burkina Faso?
• a) Sahel region
• b) Congo Basin
• c) Ethiopian Highlands
• d) Rift Valley
Solution: a)
Burkina Faso lies within the Sahel region, characterized by semi-arid landscapes and a transitional climate between the Sahara Desert and the savannah.
Solution: a)
Burkina Faso lies within the Sahel region, characterized by semi-arid landscapes and a transitional climate between the Sahara Desert and the savannah.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following features of the Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024: Compensation is paid to victims of hazardous chemical exposure. Funds are invested in public financial institutions to ensure liquidity. It mandates that SPCBs allocate 10% of the fund for public awareness programs. The scheme applies to cases registered under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) The scheme compensates victims, invests funds in public institutions, and applies to cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no specific mandate for allocating 10% to awareness programs. About Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024: Launched by: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Aim: To improve fund management, ensure efficient disbursement, and enhance environmental restoration efforts. Features: Fund Management: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) appointed as Fund Manager for five years, replacing United Insurance Company Limited. Funding Sources: Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act. Returns on fund investments. Digital Integration: Introduction of an online portal for scheme implementation and fund tracking. Disbursement Process: Funds released within 30 days of District Collector or Central Government orders. Investment Strategy: Investments in public financial institutions and savings accounts for liquidity and reinvestment. Environmental Restoration: CPCB and SPCBs to create restoration plans for Central Government approval. Funds allocated based on approved plans. Auditing: Independent auditor appointed by the Central Government with Comptroller and Auditor-General oversight. Administrative Allocation: Increased from 1% to 2% for administrative expenses. Incorrect Solution: c) The scheme compensates victims, invests funds in public institutions, and applies to cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no specific mandate for allocating 10% to awareness programs. About Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024: Launched by: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Aim: To improve fund management, ensure efficient disbursement, and enhance environmental restoration efforts. Features: Fund Management: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) appointed as Fund Manager for five years, replacing United Insurance Company Limited. Funding Sources: Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act. Returns on fund investments. Digital Integration: Introduction of an online portal for scheme implementation and fund tracking. Disbursement Process: Funds released within 30 days of District Collector or Central Government orders. Investment Strategy: Investments in public financial institutions and savings accounts for liquidity and reinvestment. Environmental Restoration: CPCB and SPCBs to create restoration plans for Central Government approval. Funds allocated based on approved plans. Auditing: Independent auditor appointed by the Central Government with Comptroller and Auditor-General oversight. Administrative Allocation: Increased from 1% to 2% for administrative expenses.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following features of the Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024:
• Compensation is paid to victims of hazardous chemical exposure.
• Funds are invested in public financial institutions to ensure liquidity.
• It mandates that SPCBs allocate 10% of the fund for public awareness programs.
• The scheme applies to cases registered under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: c)
The scheme compensates victims, invests funds in public institutions, and applies to cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no specific mandate for allocating 10% to awareness programs.
About Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024:
• Launched by: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Aim: To improve fund management, ensure efficient disbursement, and enhance environmental restoration efforts.
Features:
• Fund Management: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) appointed as Fund Manager for five years, replacing United Insurance Company Limited.
• Funding Sources: Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act. Returns on fund investments.
• Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
• Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act.
• Returns on fund investments.
• Digital Integration: Introduction of an online portal for scheme implementation and fund tracking.
• Disbursement Process: Funds released within 30 days of District Collector or Central Government orders.
• Investment Strategy: Investments in public financial institutions and savings accounts for liquidity and reinvestment.
• Environmental Restoration: CPCB and SPCBs to create restoration plans for Central Government approval. Funds allocated based on approved plans.
• Auditing: Independent auditor appointed by the Central Government with Comptroller and Auditor-General oversight.
• Administrative Allocation: Increased from 1% to 2% for administrative expenses.
Solution: c)
The scheme compensates victims, invests funds in public institutions, and applies to cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no specific mandate for allocating 10% to awareness programs.
About Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme, 2024:
• Launched by: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Aim: To improve fund management, ensure efficient disbursement, and enhance environmental restoration efforts.
Features:
• Fund Management: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) appointed as Fund Manager for five years, replacing United Insurance Company Limited.
• Funding Sources: Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act. Returns on fund investments.
• Compensation under Section 24 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
• Penalties under Sections 14, 15, or 17 of the Public Liability Insurance Act.
• Returns on fund investments.
• Digital Integration: Introduction of an online portal for scheme implementation and fund tracking.
• Disbursement Process: Funds released within 30 days of District Collector or Central Government orders.
• Investment Strategy: Investments in public financial institutions and savings accounts for liquidity and reinvestment.
• Environmental Restoration: CPCB and SPCBs to create restoration plans for Central Government approval. Funds allocated based on approved plans.
• Auditing: Independent auditor appointed by the Central Government with Comptroller and Auditor-General oversight.
• Administrative Allocation: Increased from 1% to 2% for administrative expenses.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points What is the primary function of microRNAs (miRNAs) in cellular processes? a) Transcriptional activation of target genes b) Post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression c) Direct protein synthesis in the cytoplasm d) Repair of DNA damage in the nucleus Correct Solution: b) About MicroRNAs (miRNAs): Definition: miRNAs are small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally. Functions: Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production. Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes. Role in Gene Suppression: miRNAs reduce protein synthesis by promoting mRNA degradation or hindering translation. Applications: Potential in diagnostics and therapeutics for cancer, genetic disorders, and more. Incorrect Solution: b) About MicroRNAs (miRNAs): Definition: miRNAs are small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally. Functions: Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production. Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes. Role in Gene Suppression: miRNAs reduce protein synthesis by promoting mRNA degradation or hindering translation. Applications: Potential in diagnostics and therapeutics for cancer, genetic disorders, and more.
#### 6. Question
What is the primary function of microRNAs (miRNAs) in cellular processes?
• a) Transcriptional activation of target genes
• b) Post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression
• c) Direct protein synthesis in the cytoplasm
• d) Repair of DNA damage in the nucleus
Solution: b)
About MicroRNAs (miRNAs):
• Definition: miRNAs are small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally.
• Functions: Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production. Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes.
• Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production.
• Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes.
• Role in Gene Suppression: miRNAs reduce protein synthesis by promoting mRNA degradation or hindering translation.
• Applications: Potential in diagnostics and therapeutics for cancer, genetic disorders, and more.
Solution: b)
About MicroRNAs (miRNAs):
• Definition: miRNAs are small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally.
• Functions: Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production. Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes.
• Bind to complementary mRNA sequences to suppress protein production.
• Ensure precise gene expression during development and physiological processes.
• Role in Gene Suppression: miRNAs reduce protein synthesis by promoting mRNA degradation or hindering translation.
• Applications: Potential in diagnostics and therapeutics for cancer, genetic disorders, and more.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points What makes sonobuoys essential in anti-submarine warfare (ASW)? a) Their ability to detect submarines using laser technology b) Continuous operation for extended periods without surface support c) Deployment of sonar drones for underwater surveillance d) Real-time acoustic signal detection and communication with surface Correct Solution: d) Sonobuoys are essential in ASW because they provide real-time acoustic signal detection using hydrophones and transmit data to surface or aerial platforms for immediate analysis. About Sonobuoys: What they are: Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors. Working Principles: Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact. Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication. Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals. Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships. Features: Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds. Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies. Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions. Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis. Incorrect Solution: d) Sonobuoys are essential in ASW because they provide real-time acoustic signal detection using hydrophones and transmit data to surface or aerial platforms for immediate analysis. About Sonobuoys: What they are: Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors. Working Principles: Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact. Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication. Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals. Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships. Features: Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds. Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies. Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions. Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis.
#### 7. Question
What makes sonobuoys essential in anti-submarine warfare (ASW)?
• a) Their ability to detect submarines using laser technology
• b) Continuous operation for extended periods without surface support
• c) Deployment of sonar drones for underwater surveillance
• d) Real-time acoustic signal detection and communication with surface
Solution: d)
Sonobuoys are essential in ASW because they provide real-time acoustic signal detection using hydrophones and transmit data to surface or aerial platforms for immediate analysis.
About Sonobuoys:
• What they are: Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors.
• Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research.
• Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors.
• Working Principles: Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact. Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication. Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals. Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships.
• Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact.
• Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication.
• Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals.
• Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships.
• Features: Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds. Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies. Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions. Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis.
• Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds.
• Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies.
• Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions.
• Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis.
Solution: d)
Sonobuoys are essential in ASW because they provide real-time acoustic signal detection using hydrophones and transmit data to surface or aerial platforms for immediate analysis.
About Sonobuoys:
• What they are: Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors.
• Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research.
• Typically, small (13 cm in diameter and 91 cm long), they combine above-surface transmitters and underwater hydrophone sensors.
• Working Principles: Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact. Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication. Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals. Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships.
• Deployment: Dropped from aircraft or ships, they activate upon water impact.
• Surface Float: Inflatable floats with radio transmitters remain on the water’s surface for communication.
• Sensors: Hydrophones descend to a selected depth, capturing underwater acoustic signals.
• Communication: Transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radios to operators on aircraft or ships.
• Features: Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds. Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies. Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions. Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis.
• Acoustic Versatility: Effective in tracking submarines by detecting underwater sounds.
• Interoperability: Compatible with aircraft like P-8, MH-60R, and MQ-9B across Indian and U.S. Navies.
• Customizability: Adjustable depth and sensitivity based on environmental conditions.
• Real-time Data Relay: Ensures seamless communication with operators for immediate analysis.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What is the primary cause of tidal tail formation in galaxies? a) Accretion of interstellar gas from neighboring stars b) Supernova explosions in the core of the galaxy c) Gravitational interactions during close encounters or mergers of galaxies d) High rotational velocity of spiral galaxies Correct Solution: c) Tidal tails are formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies during close encounters or mergers, which strip stars and interstellar gas from their outer regions. About Tidal Tail: What it is: A tidal tail is a long, thin stream of stars and interstellar gas formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies. How it forms: Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing. Significance: Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form. Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation. Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies. Incorrect Solution: c) Tidal tails are formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies during close encounters or mergers, which strip stars and interstellar gas from their outer regions. About Tidal Tail: What it is: A tidal tail is a long, thin stream of stars and interstellar gas formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies. How it forms: Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing. Significance: Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form. Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation. Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies.
#### 8. Question
What is the primary cause of tidal tail formation in galaxies?
• a) Accretion of interstellar gas from neighboring stars
• b) Supernova explosions in the core of the galaxy
• c) Gravitational interactions during close encounters or mergers of galaxies
• d) High rotational velocity of spiral galaxies
Solution: c)
Tidal tails are formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies during close encounters or mergers, which strip stars and interstellar gas from their outer regions.
About Tidal Tail:
• What it is: A tidal tail is a long, thin stream of stars and interstellar gas formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies.
• How it forms: Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing.
• Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing.
• Significance: Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form. Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation. Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies.
• Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form.
• Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation.
• Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies.
Solution: c)
Tidal tails are formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies during close encounters or mergers, which strip stars and interstellar gas from their outer regions.
About Tidal Tail:
• What it is: A tidal tail is a long, thin stream of stars and interstellar gas formed due to gravitational interactions between galaxies.
• How it forms: Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing.
• Gravitational forces during close encounters or mergers between galaxies strip material (stars, gas, and dust) from their outer regions, creating two tidal tails—one leading and one trailing.
• Significance: Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form. Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation. Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies.
• Galaxy Formation: Offers insights into how ultra-diffuse galaxies with low surface brightness form.
• Galaxy Evolution: Provides evidence of interactions shaping galaxies, influencing their structure and star formation.
• Cosmic History: Acts as a marker of past galactic mergers, helping trace the evolutionary history of galaxies.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sonobuoys Statement-I: Sonobuoys play a critical role in enhancing undersea domain awareness (UDA). Statement-II: They are designed to detect, track, and classify underwater objects like submarines and torpedoes. Which of the following are correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Sonobuoys enhance undersea domain awareness (UDA) by detecting, tracking, and classifying underwater objects. Incorrect Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Sonobuoys enhance undersea domain awareness (UDA) by detecting, tracking, and classifying underwater objects.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Sonobuoys
Statement-I: Sonobuoys play a critical role in enhancing undersea domain awareness (UDA). Statement-II: They are designed to detect, track, and classify underwater objects like submarines and torpedoes.
Which of the following are correct?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Solution: a)
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Sonobuoys enhance undersea domain awareness (UDA) by detecting, tracking, and classifying underwater objects.
Solution: a)
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Sonobuoys enhance undersea domain awareness (UDA) by detecting, tracking, and classifying underwater objects.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Burkina Faso’s geography: It is a landlocked country in West Africa. The Niger River forms its northern border. Its landscape is predominantly dominated by savannahs and plateaus. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Burkina Faso is landlocked and has a landscape dominated by savannahs and plateaus. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Niger River does not form its northern border. About Burkina Faso: Location: Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked. Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest). Capital: Ouagadougou. Geographic Features: Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta). Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes. Incorrect Solution: b) Burkina Faso is landlocked and has a landscape dominated by savannahs and plateaus. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Niger River does not form its northern border. About Burkina Faso: Location: Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked. Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest). Capital: Ouagadougou. Geographic Features: Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta). Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements about Burkina Faso’s geography:
• It is a landlocked country in West Africa.
• The Niger River forms its northern border.
• Its landscape is predominantly dominated by savannahs and plateaus.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Burkina Faso is landlocked and has a landscape dominated by savannahs and plateaus.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Niger River does not form its northern border.
About Burkina Faso:
• Location: Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked. Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest).
• Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked.
• Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest).
• Capital: Ouagadougou.
• Geographic Features: Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta). Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes.
• Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta).
• Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes.
Solution: b)
Burkina Faso is landlocked and has a landscape dominated by savannahs and plateaus.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Niger River does not form its northern border.
About Burkina Faso:
• Location: Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked. Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest).
• Situated in West Africa, Burkina Faso is landlocked.
• Borders: Mali (northwest), Niger (northeast), Benin (southeast), Togo and Ghana (south), and Ivory Coast (southwest).
• Capital: Ouagadougou.
• Geographic Features: Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta). Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes.
• Rivers: Major rivers include the Mouhoun (Black Volta), Nakambe (White Volta), and the Nazinon (Red Volta).
• Deserts: The northern region is arid and forms part of the Sahel, with semi-desert landscapes.
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