UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Agni-3 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM), consider the following statements: It is a three-stage missile system primarily utilizing liquid fuel propulsion to ensure high accuracy. The missile is capable of delivering both conventional and nuclear payloads to targets up to 3,000 km. It is developed and operationally deployed under the direct command of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Agni-3 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) is a cornerstone of India’s strategic deterrence. Contrary to statement 1, it is a two-stage solid-fuel missile, not a three-stage liquid-fuel system. Solid propulsion is preferred for strategic missiles as it allows for quicker launch readiness and easier storage. Statement 2 is correct; its range is approximately 3,000 km, placing it firmly in the intermediate category, and it is designed to carry strategic (nuclear) as well as conventional payloads. Statement 3 is incorrect regarding deployment; while the DRDO developed the missile, its operational deployment and command fall under the Strategic Forces Command (SFC), which is part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority. The recent successful test-firing from Chandipur, Odisha, was aimed at validating its operational readiness under the SFC. This system complements other variants like Agni-1 and Agni-5, providing a credible minimum deterrence and a robust second-strike capability. The guidance system uses advanced inertial navigation, ensuring high circular error probable (CEP) accuracy. Incorrect Solution: A The Agni-3 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) is a cornerstone of India’s strategic deterrence. Contrary to statement 1, it is a two-stage solid-fuel missile, not a three-stage liquid-fuel system. Solid propulsion is preferred for strategic missiles as it allows for quicker launch readiness and easier storage. Statement 2 is correct; its range is approximately 3,000 km, placing it firmly in the intermediate category, and it is designed to carry strategic (nuclear) as well as conventional payloads. Statement 3 is incorrect regarding deployment; while the DRDO developed the missile, its operational deployment and command fall under the Strategic Forces Command (SFC), which is part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority. The recent successful test-firing from Chandipur, Odisha, was aimed at validating its operational readiness under the SFC. This system complements other variants like Agni-1 and Agni-5, providing a credible minimum deterrence and a robust second-strike capability. The guidance system uses advanced inertial navigation, ensuring high circular error probable (CEP) accuracy.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Agni-3 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM), consider the following statements:

• It is a three-stage missile system primarily utilizing liquid fuel propulsion to ensure high accuracy.

• The missile is capable of delivering both conventional and nuclear payloads to targets up to 3,000 km.

• It is developed and operationally deployed under the direct command of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Agni-3 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) is a cornerstone of India’s strategic deterrence. Contrary to statement 1, it is a two-stage solid-fuel missile, not a three-stage liquid-fuel system.

• Solid propulsion is preferred for strategic missiles as it allows for quicker launch readiness and easier storage. Statement 2 is correct; its range is approximately 3,000 km, placing it firmly in the intermediate category, and it is designed to carry strategic (nuclear) as well as conventional payloads.

• Statement 3 is incorrect regarding deployment; while the DRDO developed the missile, its operational deployment and command fall under the Strategic Forces Command (SFC), which is part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority.

The recent successful test-firing from Chandipur, Odisha, was aimed at validating its operational readiness under the SFC. This system complements other variants like Agni-1 and Agni-5, providing a credible minimum deterrence and a robust second-strike capability. The guidance system uses advanced inertial navigation, ensuring high circular error probable (CEP) accuracy.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the following Implementing Agencies (IAs) of the Central Sector Scheme for FPOs with their specific functional domains: Column A (Agency) Column B (Primary Domain) 1. SFAC (i) Cooperative sector development 2. NABARD (ii) Agricultural marketing and forward linkages 3. NCDC (iii) Agribusiness and small farmer integration 4. NAFED (iv) Rural and agricultural credit/refinancing Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (b) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) (c) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i) (d) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) Correct Solution: A The Central Sector Scheme for the Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs utilizes a multi-agency approach to ensure wide reach and specialized support. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) (1-iii) is the lead agency for integrating small farmers into agribusiness value chains. NABARD (2-iv) focuses on providing the necessary credit support, refinancing, and rural development frameworks to make FPOs bankable. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) (3-i) specializes in the cooperative sector, helping farmers form collectives under cooperative laws. Finally, NAFED (4-ii) is instrumental in providing market linkages, forward integration, and ensuring that the produce reaches the consumer effectively, reducing the role of exploitative middlemen. This synergy allows the scheme to address different facets of the agricultural crisis—access to inputs, credit, and markets. The scheme, launched on 29 February 2020, has reached the milestone of 10,000 FPOs, significantly involving women farmers (21.96 lakh) and focusing on Aspirational Districts. By leveraging these diverse agencies, the government ensures that FPOs are not just formed but are nurtured to become sustainable business entities. Incorrect Solution: A The Central Sector Scheme for the Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs utilizes a multi-agency approach to ensure wide reach and specialized support. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) (1-iii) is the lead agency for integrating small farmers into agribusiness value chains. NABARD (2-iv) focuses on providing the necessary credit support, refinancing, and rural development frameworks to make FPOs bankable. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) (3-i) specializes in the cooperative sector, helping farmers form collectives under cooperative laws. Finally, NAFED (4-ii) is instrumental in providing market linkages, forward integration, and ensuring that the produce reaches the consumer effectively, reducing the role of exploitative middlemen. This synergy allows the scheme to address different facets of the agricultural crisis—access to inputs, credit, and markets. The scheme, launched on 29 February 2020, has reached the milestone of 10,000 FPOs, significantly involving women farmers (21.96 lakh) and focusing on Aspirational Districts. By leveraging these diverse agencies, the government ensures that FPOs are not just formed but are nurtured to become sustainable business entities.

#### 2. Question

Match the following Implementing Agencies (IAs) of the Central Sector Scheme for FPOs with their specific functional domains:

Column A (Agency) | Column B (Primary Domain)

1.SFAC | (i) Cooperative sector development
2.NABARD | (ii) Agricultural marketing and forward linkages
3.NCDC | (iii) Agribusiness and small farmer integration
4.NAFED | (iv) Rural and agricultural credit/refinancing

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)

• (b) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

• (c) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

• (d) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)

Solution: A

• The Central Sector Scheme for the Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs utilizes a multi-agency approach to ensure wide reach and specialized support.

• Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) (1-iii) is the lead agency for integrating small farmers into agribusiness value chains.

• NABARD (2-iv) focuses on providing the necessary credit support, refinancing, and rural development frameworks to make FPOs bankable. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) (3-i) specializes in the cooperative sector, helping farmers form collectives under cooperative laws.

• Finally, NAFED (4-ii) is instrumental in providing market linkages, forward integration, and ensuring that the produce reaches the consumer effectively, reducing the role of exploitative middlemen. This synergy allows the scheme to address different facets of the agricultural crisis—access to inputs, credit, and markets.

• The scheme, launched on 29 February 2020, has reached the milestone of 10,000 FPOs, significantly involving women farmers (21.96 lakh) and focusing on Aspirational Districts. By leveraging these diverse agencies, the government ensures that FPOs are not just formed but are nurtured to become sustainable business entities.

Solution: A

• The Central Sector Scheme for the Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs utilizes a multi-agency approach to ensure wide reach and specialized support.

• Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) (1-iii) is the lead agency for integrating small farmers into agribusiness value chains.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Denotified Tribes (DNTs) in India, consider the following statements: They were historically branded as “criminal tribes” under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 during British rule. The term “Denotified” refers to their status after the repeal of the colonial law in 1952. Following the repeal, they were immediately granted a separate constitutional category similar to SCs and STs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Denotified Tribes (DNTs), or Vimukta Jatis, have a unique and painful history. Statement 1 is correct; the British colonial government enacted the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, which declared entire communities as “born criminals,” subjecting them to constant surveillance and restricted movement. Statement 2 is also correct; after Independence, the Government of India repealed this draconian law in 1952, and these tribes were “denotified” from the list of criminal tribes. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of a separate constitutional category, DNTs were often absorbed into the existing SC, ST, or OBC lists. This has led to political misclassification, as they often cannot compete for benefits with more advanced groups within those categories. Incorrect Solution: B Denotified Tribes (DNTs), or Vimukta Jatis, have a unique and painful history. Statement 1 is correct; the British colonial government enacted the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, which declared entire communities as “born criminals,” subjecting them to constant surveillance and restricted movement. Statement 2 is also correct; after Independence, the Government of India repealed this draconian law in 1952, and these tribes were “denotified” from the list of criminal tribes. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of a separate constitutional category, DNTs were often absorbed into the existing SC, ST, or OBC lists. This has led to political misclassification, as they often cannot compete for benefits with more advanced groups within those categories.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Denotified Tribes (DNTs) in India, consider the following statements:

• They were historically branded as “criminal tribes” under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 during British rule.

• The term “Denotified” refers to their status after the repeal of the colonial law in 1952.

• Following the repeal, they were immediately granted a separate constitutional category similar to SCs and STs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Denotified Tribes (DNTs), or Vimukta Jatis, have a unique and painful history.

• Statement 1 is correct; the British colonial government enacted the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, which declared entire communities as “born criminals,” subjecting them to constant surveillance and restricted movement.

• Statement 2 is also correct; after Independence, the Government of India repealed this draconian law in 1952, and these tribes were “denotified” from the list of criminal tribes.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of a separate constitutional category, DNTs were often absorbed into the existing SC, ST, or OBC lists. This has led to political misclassification, as they often cannot compete for benefits with more advanced groups within those categories.

Solution: B

• Denotified Tribes (DNTs), or Vimukta Jatis, have a unique and painful history.

• Statement 2 is also correct; after Independence, the Government of India repealed this draconian law in 1952, and these tribes were “denotified” from the list of criminal tribes.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the notification on ‘deep tech’ start-ups by the DPIIT, consider the following statements: Deep tech start-ups are defined by incremental improvements to existing platform-based technologies. To be eligible, a start-up’s core activity must involve the creation of new scientific or engineering knowledge. These start-ups are characterized by high technical uncertainty and long gestation periods. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D The Centre’s formal definition of deep tech start-ups marks a shift toward supporting high-end innovation. Statement 1 is incorrect; deep tech is specifically distinguished from incremental or platform-based innovation. Instead of just making an app better, deep tech seeks to solve fundamental problems using new scientific discovery. Statement 2 is correct; the core activity must involve the creation of new knowledge in science or engineering. Statement 3 is also correct; these ventures are defined by high technical risk, long development timelines, and the need for intensive R&D. Unlike a standard software start-up that might launch in months, a deep tech start-up in semiconductors, biotech, or quantum computing might take years to reach the market. The DPIIT is the final authority to certify these entities. Eligibility also requires a major expenditure on R&D and the ownership of novel intellectual property (IP). These start-ups are prohibited from non-core investments like real estate. By defining this category, the government intends to provide targeted support, such as patient capital, to help India compete in global frontier technologies. Incorrect Solution: D The Centre’s formal definition of deep tech start-ups marks a shift toward supporting high-end innovation. Statement 1 is incorrect; deep tech is specifically distinguished from incremental or platform-based innovation. Instead of just making an app better, deep tech seeks to solve fundamental problems using new scientific discovery. Statement 2 is correct; the core activity must involve the creation of new knowledge in science or engineering. Statement 3 is also correct; these ventures are defined by high technical risk, long development timelines, and the need for intensive R&D. Unlike a standard software start-up that might launch in months, a deep tech start-up in semiconductors, biotech, or quantum computing might take years to reach the market. The DPIIT is the final authority to certify these entities. Eligibility also requires a major expenditure on R&D and the ownership of novel intellectual property (IP). These start-ups are prohibited from non-core investments like real estate. By defining this category, the government intends to provide targeted support, such as patient capital, to help India compete in global frontier technologies.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the notification on ‘deep tech’ start-ups by the DPIIT, consider the following statements:

• Deep tech start-ups are defined by incremental improvements to existing platform-based technologies.

• To be eligible, a start-up’s core activity must involve the creation of new scientific or engineering knowledge.

• These start-ups are characterized by high technical uncertainty and long gestation periods.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• The Centre’s formal definition of deep tech start-ups marks a shift toward supporting high-end innovation.

• Statement 1 is incorrect; deep tech is specifically distinguished from incremental or platform-based innovation. Instead of just making an app better, deep tech seeks to solve fundamental problems using new scientific discovery.

• Statement 2 is correct; the core activity must involve the creation of new knowledge in science or engineering.

• Statement 3 is also correct; these ventures are defined by high technical risk, long development timelines, and the need for intensive R&D. Unlike a standard software start-up that might launch in months, a deep tech start-up in semiconductors, biotech, or quantum computing might take years to reach the market.

• The DPIIT is the final authority to certify these entities. Eligibility also requires a major expenditure on R&D and the ownership of novel intellectual property (IP). These start-ups are prohibited from non-core investments like real estate. By defining this category, the government intends to provide targeted support, such as patient capital, to help India compete in global frontier technologies.

Solution: D

• The Centre’s formal definition of deep tech start-ups marks a shift toward supporting high-end innovation.

• Statement 2 is correct; the core activity must involve the creation of new knowledge in science or engineering.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Match the following features of the Chabahar Port with their correct descriptions: Column A (Feature) Column B (Location/Province) Column C (Strategic Context) 1. Shahid Beheshti (i) Sistan–Baluchestan (X) Multipurpose cargo terminal 2. Gwadar Port (ii) Balochistan (Pakistan) (Y) Counter-balance to CPEC 3. Bandar Abbas (iii) Hormozgan (Iran) (Z) Persian Gulf transit hub Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-(ii)-(Y), 2-(iii)-(Z), 3-(i)-(X) (b) 1-(iii)-(Z), 2-(i)-(X), 3-(ii)-(Y) (c) 1-(i)-(X), 2-(ii)-(Y), 3-(iii)-(Z) (d) 1-(i)-(Y), 2-(ii)-(X), 3-(iii)-(Z) Correct Solution: C Chabahar Port is India’s strategic gateway to Central Asia. The port consists of two main terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari. Shahid Beheshti (1-i-X) is the primary terminal located in Sistan–Baluchestan province, designed to handle container and multipurpose cargo. Gwadar Port (2-ii-Y) is located in Pakistan’s Balochistan province, just 170 km east of Chabahar; it is a key part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), and Chabahar acts as a geopolitical counter-balance to it. Bandar Abbas (3-iii-Z) is Iran’s other major port located in the Persian Gulf (Hormozgan province); however, unlike Chabahar, it is not an oceanic port and has capacity limitations for the largest ocean-going vessels. Chabahar’s direct access to the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) makes it superior for regional connectivity. In 2024, India signed a 10-year contract for operations, including a $250 million Line of Credit. This project is central to the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), bypassing Pakistan to reach Afghanistan and Central Asia. Its significance extends to humanitarian aid, as seen in wheat shipments to Afghanistan, and economic integration through road–rail projects connecting to the broader Eurasian network. Incorrect Solution: C Chabahar Port is India’s strategic gateway to Central Asia. The port consists of two main terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari. Shahid Beheshti (1-i-X) is the primary terminal located in Sistan–Baluchestan province, designed to handle container and multipurpose cargo. Gwadar Port (2-ii-Y) is located in Pakistan’s Balochistan province, just 170 km east of Chabahar; it is a key part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), and Chabahar acts as a geopolitical counter-balance to it. Bandar Abbas (3-iii-Z) is Iran’s other major port located in the Persian Gulf (Hormozgan province); however, unlike Chabahar, it is not an oceanic port and has capacity limitations for the largest ocean-going vessels. Chabahar’s direct access to the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) makes it superior for regional connectivity. In 2024, India signed a 10-year contract for operations, including a $250 million Line of Credit. This project is central to the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), bypassing Pakistan to reach Afghanistan and Central Asia. Its significance extends to humanitarian aid, as seen in wheat shipments to Afghanistan, and economic integration through road–rail projects connecting to the broader Eurasian network.

#### 5. Question

Match the following features of the Chabahar Port with their correct descriptions:

Column A (Feature) | Column B (Location/Province) | Column C (Strategic Context)

1.Shahid Beheshti | (i) Sistan–Baluchestan | (X) Multipurpose cargo terminal
2.Gwadar Port | (ii) Balochistan (Pakistan) | (Y) Counter-balance to CPEC
3.Bandar Abbas | (iii) Hormozgan (Iran) | (Z) Persian Gulf transit hub

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-(ii)-(Y), 2-(iii)-(Z), 3-(i)-(X)

• (b) 1-(iii)-(Z), 2-(i)-(X), 3-(ii)-(Y)

• (c) 1-(i)-(X), 2-(ii)-(Y), 3-(iii)-(Z)

• (d) 1-(i)-(Y), 2-(ii)-(X), 3-(iii)-(Z)

Solution: C

• Chabahar Port is India’s strategic gateway to Central Asia. The port consists of two main terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.

• Shahid Beheshti (1-i-X) is the primary terminal located in Sistan–Baluchestan province, designed to handle container and multipurpose cargo.

• Gwadar Port (2-ii-Y) is located in Pakistan’s Balochistan province, just 170 km east of Chabahar; it is a key part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), and Chabahar acts as a geopolitical counter-balance to it.

• Bandar Abbas (3-iii-Z) is Iran’s other major port located in the Persian Gulf (Hormozgan province); however, unlike Chabahar, it is not an oceanic port and has capacity limitations for the largest ocean-going vessels. Chabahar’s direct access to the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) makes it superior for regional connectivity. In 2024, India signed a 10-year contract for operations, including a $250 million Line of Credit. This project is central to the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), bypassing Pakistan to reach Afghanistan and Central Asia. Its significance extends to humanitarian aid, as seen in wheat shipments to Afghanistan, and economic integration through road–rail projects connecting to the broader Eurasian network.

Solution: C

• Chabahar Port is India’s strategic gateway to Central Asia. The port consists of two main terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.

• Shahid Beheshti (1-i-X) is the primary terminal located in Sistan–Baluchestan province, designed to handle container and multipurpose cargo.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to Mount Aconcagua, consider the following statements: It is the highest peak in both the Southern and Western Hemispheres. It is an active stratovolcano located in the Northern Andes. The peak is situated entirely within the borders of Chile. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Mount Aconcagua is a mountain of extremes. Statement 1 is correct; at approximately 22,831 feet (6,959 m), it is the highest point in the Western Hemisphere, Southern Hemisphere, and the tallest peak outside of Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect; while it is of volcanic origin, it is not an active volcano. Furthermore, it is located in the Southern Andes in the western Mendoza Province of Argentina, near the border with Chile. Statement 3 is incorrect; while it is very close to the Argentina-Chile border, the peak itself is located within the Mendoza Province of Argentina. Incorrect Solution: A Mount Aconcagua is a mountain of extremes. Statement 1 is correct; at approximately 22,831 feet (6,959 m), it is the highest point in the Western Hemisphere, Southern Hemisphere, and the tallest peak outside of Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect; while it is of volcanic origin, it is not an active volcano. Furthermore, it is located in the Southern Andes in the western Mendoza Province of Argentina, near the border with Chile. Statement 3 is incorrect; while it is very close to the Argentina-Chile border, the peak itself is located within the Mendoza Province of Argentina.

#### 6. Question

With reference to Mount Aconcagua, consider the following statements:

• It is the highest peak in both the Southern and Western Hemispheres.

• It is an active stratovolcano located in the Northern Andes.

• The peak is situated entirely within the borders of Chile.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Mount Aconcagua is a mountain of extremes.

• Statement 1 is correct; at approximately 22,831 feet (6,959 m), it is the highest point in the Western Hemisphere, Southern Hemisphere, and the tallest peak outside of Asia.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; while it is of volcanic origin, it is not an active volcano. Furthermore, it is located in the Southern Andes in the western Mendoza Province of Argentina, near the border with Chile.

• Statement 3 is incorrect; while it is very close to the Argentina-Chile border, the peak itself is located within the Mendoza Province of Argentina.

Solution: A

• Mount Aconcagua is a mountain of extremes.

• Statement 1 is correct; at approximately 22,831 feet (6,959 m), it is the highest point in the Western Hemisphere, Southern Hemisphere, and the tallest peak outside of Asia.

• Statement 3 is incorrect; while it is very close to the Argentina-Chile border, the peak itself is located within the Mendoza Province of Argentina.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the humanoid robot ‘ASC ARJUN’, consider the following statements: It is an indigenous AI-powered robot developed by the Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR), DRDO. It is equipped with a Face Recognition System (FRS) to assist the Railway Protection Force (RPF) in station surveillance. The robot can perform autonomous patrolling and provide public announcements in multiple regional languages. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The deployment of ASC ARJUN at Visakhapatnam Railway Station marks a significant milestone in Indian Railways’ technological integration. Statement 1 is incorrect because the robot was indigenously designed and developed by a dedicated Indian Railways technical team in Visakhapatnam, rather than DRDO. Statement 2 is correct as it features an AI-based Face Recognition System (FRS) for intrusion detection and crowd monitoring, which directly assists the Railway Protection Force (RPF). Statement 3 is also correct; the robot is capable of semi-autonomous navigation for round-the-clock patrolling and can make automated announcements in English, Hindi, and Telugu. This initiative aims to optimize manpower and enhance passenger safety through real-time alerts to control rooms. The robot’s ability to recognize emergencies like fire and smoke adds a layer of safety at high-footfall stations. Incorrect Solution: B The deployment of ASC ARJUN at Visakhapatnam Railway Station marks a significant milestone in Indian Railways’ technological integration. Statement 1 is incorrect because the robot was indigenously designed and developed by a dedicated Indian Railways technical team in Visakhapatnam, rather than DRDO. Statement 2 is correct as it features an AI-based Face Recognition System (FRS) for intrusion detection and crowd monitoring, which directly assists the Railway Protection Force (RPF). Statement 3 is also correct; the robot is capable of semi-autonomous navigation for round-the-clock patrolling and can make automated announcements in English, Hindi, and Telugu. This initiative aims to optimize manpower and enhance passenger safety through real-time alerts to control rooms. The robot’s ability to recognize emergencies like fire and smoke adds a layer of safety at high-footfall stations.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the humanoid robot ‘ASC ARJUN’, consider the following statements:

• It is an indigenous AI-powered robot developed by the Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR), DRDO.

• It is equipped with a Face Recognition System (FRS) to assist the Railway Protection Force (RPF) in station surveillance.

• The robot can perform autonomous patrolling and provide public announcements in multiple regional languages.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The deployment of ASC ARJUN at Visakhapatnam Railway Station marks a significant milestone in Indian Railways’ technological integration.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the robot was indigenously designed and developed by a dedicated Indian Railways technical team in Visakhapatnam, rather than DRDO.

• Statement 2 is correct as it features an AI-based Face Recognition System (FRS) for intrusion detection and crowd monitoring, which directly assists the Railway Protection Force (RPF).

• Statement 3 is also correct; the robot is capable of semi-autonomous navigation for round-the-clock patrolling and can make automated announcements in English, Hindi, and Telugu. This initiative aims to optimize manpower and enhance passenger safety through real-time alerts to control rooms. The robot’s ability to recognize emergencies like fire and smoke adds a layer of safety at high-footfall stations.

Solution: B

• The deployment of ASC ARJUN at Visakhapatnam Railway Station marks a significant milestone in Indian Railways’ technological integration.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the robot was indigenously designed and developed by a dedicated Indian Railways technical team in Visakhapatnam, rather than DRDO.

• Statement 2 is correct as it features an AI-based Face Recognition System (FRS) for intrusion detection and crowd monitoring, which directly assists the Railway Protection Force (RPF).

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Polar Vortex’: It is a high-pressure system that develops over the poles during the summer months due to intense solar heating. A strong polar vortex is characterized by a wavy jet stream that allows cold Arctic air to spill into mid-latitudes. Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) events typically strengthen the tropospheric polar vortex, keeping cold air locked at the poles. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the polar vortex is a large area of low pressure (not high pressure) and extremely cold air that is most persistent during the winter months. Statement 2 is incorrect because a strong vortex keeps the jet stream stable and straight, locking the cold air at the poles; it is a weakened or disrupted vortex that makes the jet stream wavy, leading to cold air outbreaks in regions like the US or Europe. Statement 3 is incorrect because Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) refers to rapid warming in the stratosphere that weakens or splits the vortex, causing it to collapse and push freezing air southward. The phenomenon is also influenced by Arctic amplification, where the Arctic warms faster than lower latitudes, reducing the temperature gradient and destabilizing the atmospheric circulation. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the polar vortex is a large area of low pressure (not high pressure) and extremely cold air that is most persistent during the winter months. Statement 2 is incorrect because a strong vortex keeps the jet stream stable and straight, locking the cold air at the poles; it is a weakened or disrupted vortex that makes the jet stream wavy, leading to cold air outbreaks in regions like the US or Europe. Statement 3 is incorrect because Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) refers to rapid warming in the stratosphere that weakens or splits the vortex, causing it to collapse and push freezing air southward. The phenomenon is also influenced by Arctic amplification, where the Arctic warms faster than lower latitudes, reducing the temperature gradient and destabilizing the atmospheric circulation.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Polar Vortex’:

• It is a high-pressure system that develops over the poles during the summer months due to intense solar heating.

• A strong polar vortex is characterized by a wavy jet stream that allows cold Arctic air to spill into mid-latitudes.

• Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) events typically strengthen the tropospheric polar vortex, keeping cold air locked at the poles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the polar vortex is a large area of low pressure (not high pressure) and extremely cold air that is most persistent during the winter months.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because a strong vortex keeps the jet stream stable and straight, locking the cold air at the poles; it is a weakened or disrupted vortex that makes the jet stream wavy, leading to cold air outbreaks in regions like the US or Europe.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) refers to rapid warming in the stratosphere that weakens or splits the vortex, causing it to collapse and push freezing air southward. The phenomenon is also influenced by Arctic amplification, where the Arctic warms faster than lower latitudes, reducing the temperature gradient and destabilizing the atmospheric circulation.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the polar vortex is a large area of low pressure (not high pressure) and extremely cold air that is most persistent during the winter months.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The ‘Cheenkanni River’ is a major hydrological feature of which of the following protected areas? (a) Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Kottiyoor Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary (d) Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Correct Solution: C The Cheenkanni River is the primary drainage system for the Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary in the Kannur district of Kerala. The river and its tributaries create the humid, lush microclimates necessary for the sanctuary’s diverse flora and fauna. Aralam was originally constituted in 1984 and was recently renamed to emphasize its status as the first butterfly sanctuary in Kerala. The sanctuary’s location on the western slopes of the Western Ghats ensures high annual rainfall, contributing to the river’s flow and the resulting evergreen forest habitat. This habitat supports 266 species of butterflies, including several Schedule I species like the Slender Loris. Incorrect Solution: C The Cheenkanni River is the primary drainage system for the Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary in the Kannur district of Kerala. The river and its tributaries create the humid, lush microclimates necessary for the sanctuary’s diverse flora and fauna. Aralam was originally constituted in 1984 and was recently renamed to emphasize its status as the first butterfly sanctuary in Kerala. The sanctuary’s location on the western slopes of the Western Ghats ensures high annual rainfall, contributing to the river’s flow and the resulting evergreen forest habitat. This habitat supports 266 species of butterflies, including several Schedule I species like the Slender Loris.

#### 9. Question

The ‘Cheenkanni River’ is a major hydrological feature of which of the following protected areas?

• (a) Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary

• (b) Kottiyoor Wildlife Sanctuary

• (c) Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary

• (d) Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Solution: C

The Cheenkanni River is the primary drainage system for the Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary in the Kannur district of Kerala. The river and its tributaries create the humid, lush microclimates necessary for the sanctuary’s diverse flora and fauna. Aralam was originally constituted in 1984 and was recently renamed to emphasize its status as the first butterfly sanctuary in Kerala. The sanctuary’s location on the western slopes of the Western Ghats ensures high annual rainfall, contributing to the river’s flow and the resulting evergreen forest habitat. This habitat supports 266 species of butterflies, including several Schedule I species like the Slender Loris.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the concept of ‘Day Zero’, consider the following statements: It refers to the point when a city’s usable water supply falls below a critical threshold. Under Day Zero, water is prioritized for agriculture to ensure food security. The crisis is often a result of over-extraction of groundwater and poor urban planning. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Day Zero is defined as the threshold where regular tap water supply is shut off due to critically low reservoir or groundwater levels. Statement 3 is also correct, as the crisis is typically a culmination of long-term stressors like groundwater over-extraction, climate change, and weak governance. Statement 2 is incorrect because, during a Day Zero event, water is prioritized for essential services such as hospitals, sanitation, and firefighting, rather than agriculture. In urban settings, residential taps are closed, and citizens must collect rationed water from emergency distribution points. This phenomenon leads to significant urban disruption and can cause social unrest, disproportionately affecting vulnerable populations in informal settlements. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Day Zero is defined as the threshold where regular tap water supply is shut off due to critically low reservoir or groundwater levels. Statement 3 is also correct, as the crisis is typically a culmination of long-term stressors like groundwater over-extraction, climate change, and weak governance. Statement 2 is incorrect because, during a Day Zero event, water is prioritized for essential services such as hospitals, sanitation, and firefighting, rather than agriculture. In urban settings, residential taps are closed, and citizens must collect rationed water from emergency distribution points. This phenomenon leads to significant urban disruption and can cause social unrest, disproportionately affecting vulnerable populations in informal settlements.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the concept of ‘Day Zero’, consider the following statements:

• It refers to the point when a city’s usable water supply falls below a critical threshold.

• Under Day Zero, water is prioritized for agriculture to ensure food security.

• The crisis is often a result of over-extraction of groundwater and poor urban planning.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; Day Zero is defined as the threshold where regular tap water supply is shut off due to critically low reservoir or groundwater levels. Statement 3 is also correct, as the crisis is typically a culmination of long-term stressors like groundwater over-extraction, climate change, and weak governance.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because, during a Day Zero event, water is prioritized for essential services such as hospitals, sanitation, and firefighting, rather than agriculture. In urban settings, residential taps are closed, and citizens must collect rationed water from emergency distribution points. This phenomenon leads to significant urban disruption and can cause social unrest, disproportionately affecting vulnerable populations in informal settlements.

Solution: B

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