UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee (INR) against the US Dollar (USD), consider the following statements: Capital outflows by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) reduce the demand for the Rupee, leading to depreciation. Tight US monetary policy strengthens the Rupee relative to the Dollar, as US assets become less attractive. Widening of India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) increases the country’s external financing needs, adding pressure on the Rupee. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: When Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) sell Indian assets, they convert Rupees into Dollars, thus increasing the supply of INR and reducing its demand in the forex market, which directly leads to depreciation. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tight US monetary policy (e.g., high US interest rates) makes dollar assets (US bonds) more attractive for global capital, leading to capital shifting away from emerging markets like India. This increased flow towards the US strengthens the US Dollar and consequently weakens or depreciates the Indian Rupee. Statement 3 is correct: A widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) means imports exceed exports, requiring more foreign currency (US Dollars) to finance the gap. This higher demand for USD relative to INR puts downward pressure on the Rupee’s value. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: When Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) sell Indian assets, they convert Rupees into Dollars, thus increasing the supply of INR and reducing its demand in the forex market, which directly leads to depreciation. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tight US monetary policy (e.g., high US interest rates) makes dollar assets (US bonds) more attractive for global capital, leading to capital shifting away from emerging markets like India. This increased flow towards the US strengthens the US Dollar and consequently weakens or depreciates the Indian Rupee. Statement 3 is correct: A widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) means imports exceed exports, requiring more foreign currency (US Dollars) to finance the gap. This higher demand for USD relative to INR puts downward pressure on the Rupee’s value.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee (INR) against the US Dollar (USD), consider the following statements:

• Capital outflows by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) reduce the demand for the Rupee, leading to depreciation.

• Tight US monetary policy strengthens the Rupee relative to the Dollar, as US assets become less attractive.

• Widening of India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) increases the country’s external financing needs, adding pressure on the Rupee.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: When Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) sell Indian assets, they convert Rupees into Dollars, thus increasing the supply of INR and reducing its demand in the forex market, which directly leads to depreciation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Tight US monetary policy (e.g., high US interest rates) makes dollar assets (US bonds) more attractive for global capital, leading to capital shifting away from emerging markets like India. This increased flow towards the US strengthens the US Dollar and consequently weakens or depreciates the Indian Rupee.

Statement 3 is correct: A widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) means imports exceed exports, requiring more foreign currency (US Dollars) to finance the gap. This higher demand for USD relative to INR puts downward pressure on the Rupee’s value.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding a Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) event: SSW is characterized by a rapid temperature drop of up to 50°C in the troposphere. It causes the stratospheric polar vortex to significantly strengthen, trapping cold air near the North Pole. The event is typically caused by the downward movement of strong westerly winds near the Arctic. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. SSWs are marked by a rapid temperature *increase (warming) in the stratosphere, not a temperature drop in the troposphere. Temperatures in the polar stratosphere can rise by tens of degrees (≈20–50°C) over a few days. Statement 2 is incorrect: An SSW weakens, displaces, or even splits the stratospheric polar vortex — it does not strengthen it. When the vortex is weakened or displaced, cold polar air can spill out to lower latitudes, producing cold snaps. Statement 3 is incorrect: SSW is triggered by the upward propagation of atmospheric disturbances called Rossby waves from the troposphere into the stratosphere. When these waves “break,” they disrupt the stable westerly wind circulation, leading to the warming. The consequence of the weakening is the release of Arctic air, causing cold outbreaks in mid-latitudes. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. SSWs are marked by a rapid temperature increase* (warming) in the stratosphere, not a temperature drop in the troposphere. Temperatures in the polar stratosphere can rise by tens of degrees (≈20–50°C) over a few days. Statement 2 is incorrect: An SSW weakens, displaces, or even splits the stratospheric polar vortex — it does not strengthen it. When the vortex is weakened or displaced, cold polar air can spill out to lower latitudes, producing cold snaps. Statement 3 is incorrect: SSW is triggered by the upward propagation of atmospheric disturbances called Rossby waves** from the troposphere into the stratosphere. When these waves “break,” they disrupt the stable westerly wind circulation, leading to the warming. The consequence of the weakening is the release of Arctic air, causing cold outbreaks in mid-latitudes.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding a Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) event:

• SSW is characterized by a rapid temperature drop of up to 50°C in the troposphere.

• It causes the stratospheric polar vortex to significantly strengthen, trapping cold air near the North Pole.

• The event is typically caused by the downward movement of strong westerly winds near the Arctic.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. SSWs are marked by a rapid temperature *increase (warming) in the stratosphere*, not a temperature drop in the troposphere. Temperatures in the polar stratosphere can rise by tens of degrees (≈20–50°C) over a few days.

Statement 2 is incorrect: An SSW weakens, displaces, or even splits the stratospheric polar vortex — it does not strengthen it. When the vortex is weakened or displaced, cold polar air can spill out to lower latitudes, producing cold snaps.

Statement 3 is incorrect: SSW is triggered by the upward propagation of atmospheric disturbances called Rossby waves from the troposphere into the stratosphere. When these waves “break,” they disrupt the stable westerly wind circulation, leading to the warming. The consequence of the weakening is the release of Arctic air, causing cold outbreaks in mid-latitudes.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points The term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’, which was recently in news in the context of the Indian economy, refers to: (a) The average annual growth rate of India's GDP between 1950s and 1980s. (b) The high and sustained growth rate achieved after the 1991 economic reforms. (c) The growth achieved primarily by the Service Sector, surpassing Manufacturing and Agriculture. (d) The annual target growth rate set by the Planning Commission during the 11th Five-Year Plan. Correct Solution: A Explanation: The term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’ was coined by economist Raj Krishna in 1978. It refers to the low and stagnant average annual growth rate of the Indian economy, which hovered around 3.5% between the 1950s and the 1980s. The term was used to describe this slow, stable growth rate, contrasting it with the generally higher growth rates achieved by other developing nations at the time. It reflected a period dominated by a regulated economy, the “License Raj,” where investment, production, and trade were heavily restricted, leading to limited economic dynamism. Crucially, the term is purely economic and does not carry any religious connotation; it simply pointed out that despite demographic differences and other factors, the low growth rate remained constant. The Indian economy broke out of this low growth trajectory primarily after the economic liberalization reforms of 1991. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: The term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’ was coined by economist Raj Krishna in 1978. It refers to the low and stagnant average annual growth rate of the Indian economy, which hovered around 3.5% between the 1950s and the 1980s. The term was used to describe this slow, stable growth rate, contrasting it with the generally higher growth rates achieved by other developing nations at the time. It reflected a period dominated by a regulated economy, the “License Raj,” where investment, production, and trade were heavily restricted, leading to limited economic dynamism. Crucially, the term is purely economic and does not carry any religious connotation; it simply pointed out that despite demographic differences and other factors, the low growth rate remained constant. The Indian economy broke out of this low growth trajectory primarily after the economic liberalization reforms of 1991.

#### 3. Question

The term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’, which was recently in news in the context of the Indian economy, refers to:

• (a) The average annual growth rate of India's GDP between 1950s and 1980s.

• (b) The high and sustained growth rate achieved after the 1991 economic reforms.

• (c) The growth achieved primarily by the Service Sector, surpassing Manufacturing and Agriculture.

• (d) The annual target growth rate set by the Planning Commission during the 11th Five-Year Plan.

Solution: A

Explanation:

The term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’ was coined by economist Raj Krishna in 1978. It refers to the low and stagnant average annual growth rate of the Indian economy, which hovered around 3.5% between the 1950s and the 1980s. The term was used to describe this slow, stable growth rate, contrasting it with the generally higher growth rates achieved by other developing nations at the time.

It reflected a period dominated by a regulated economy, the “License Raj,” where investment, production, and trade were heavily restricted, leading to limited economic dynamism. Crucially, the term is purely economic and does not carry any religious connotation; it simply pointed out that despite demographic differences and other factors, the low growth rate remained constant. The Indian economy broke out of this low growth trajectory primarily after the economic liberalization reforms of 1991.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the UNEP Medium-Term Strategy (MTS) for 2026–2030, a key focus of UNEA-7: One of the core pillars of the MTS is “Zero Pollution,” aiming for life-cycle solutions to tackle plastics, chemicals, and waste. The strategy is legally binding, dictating specific timelines for regulatory changes in all member states for environmental compliance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Explanation: UNEA-7 is the world’s highest environmental decision-making forum, convened under the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). It brings together all UN member states to negotiate resolutions and chart global environmental policy. Venue: UNEP Headquarters, Nairobi, Kenya. Statement 1 is correct. The UNEP Medium-Term Strategy (MTS), which guides the UN Environment Programme’s work, is structured around three interconnected environmental crises: climate change, biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste. The strategy for 2026–2030 (and the preceding 2022–2025 MTS) prominently features a strategic objective focused on “Zero Pollution.” This goal involves promoting sustainable consumption and production, strengthening pollution control, and working toward life-cycle management of chemicals, plastics, and other forms of waste. Statement 2 is incorrect. The MTS is a strategic planning document for the UNEP secretariat and member states to align their efforts; it is not a legally binding commitment that dictates specific, enforceable regulatory changes on countries. UNEA resolutions and the MTS provide a political foundation, but member states must voluntarily integrate these goals into their domestic legislation, and compliance is encouraged through cooperation and reporting, not mandated enforcement. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: UNEA-7 is the world’s highest environmental decision-making forum, convened under the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). It brings together all UN member states to negotiate resolutions and chart global environmental policy. Venue: UNEP Headquarters, Nairobi, Kenya. Statement 1 is correct. The UNEP Medium-Term Strategy (MTS), which guides the UN Environment Programme’s work, is structured around three interconnected environmental crises: climate change, biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste. The strategy for 2026–2030 (and the preceding 2022–2025 MTS) prominently features a strategic objective focused on “Zero Pollution.” This goal involves promoting sustainable consumption and production, strengthening pollution control, and working toward life-cycle management of chemicals, plastics, and other forms of waste. Statement 2 is incorrect. The MTS is a strategic planning document for the UNEP secretariat and member states to align their efforts; it is not a legally binding commitment that dictates specific, enforceable regulatory changes on countries. UNEA resolutions and the MTS provide a political foundation, but member states must voluntarily integrate these goals into their domestic legislation, and compliance is encouraged through cooperation and reporting, not mandated enforcement.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the UNEP Medium-Term Strategy (MTS) for 2026–2030, a key focus of UNEA-7:

• One of the core pillars of the MTS is “Zero Pollution,” aiming for life-cycle solutions to tackle plastics, chemicals, and waste.

• The strategy is legally binding, dictating specific timelines for regulatory changes in all member states for environmental compliance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Explanation:

UNEA-7 is the world’s highest environmental decision-making forum, convened under the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). It brings together all UN member states to negotiate resolutions and chart global environmental policy.

• Venue: UNEP Headquarters, Nairobi, Kenya.

Statement 1 is correct. The UNEP Medium-Term Strategy (MTS), which guides the UN Environment Programme’s work, is structured around three interconnected environmental crises: climate change, biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste.

The strategy for 2026–2030 (and the preceding 2022–2025 MTS) prominently features a strategic objective focused on “Zero Pollution.” This goal involves promoting sustainable consumption and production, strengthening pollution control, and working toward life-cycle management of chemicals, plastics, and other forms of waste.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The MTS is a strategic planning document for the UNEP secretariat and member states to align their efforts; it is not a legally binding commitment that dictates specific, enforceable regulatory changes on countries. UNEA resolutions and the MTS provide a political foundation, but member states must voluntarily integrate these goals into their domestic legislation, and compliance is encouraged through cooperation and reporting, not mandated enforcement.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Venue: UNEP Headquarters, Nairobi, Kenya.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points In the context of eliminating neglected tropical diseases, consider the following statements about Onchocerciasis (River Blindness): The disease is caused by a parasitic worm and is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected tsetse flies. It is predominantly found in fast-flowing rivers and streams in sub-Saharan Africa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is caused by a parasitic worm (Onchocerca volvulus), but it is transmitted through repeated bites of infected blackflies of the Simulium species, not tsetse flies (which transmit African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness). Niger recently became the first country in the African Region to eliminate the disease. Statement 2 is correct. Onchocerciasis, or River Blindness, is common throughout sub-Saharan Africa (and parts of South America). The name “river blindness” comes from the fact that the vector flies breed near fast-flowing rivers and streams in tropical, remote agricultural areas. Key Features: Caused by chronic microfilarial infection producing intense inflammation. Leads to severe itching, disfiguring skin changes (“leopard skin”), and progressive eye damage. Adult worms live 10–15 years, making long-term treatment essential. Community-level morbidity includes blindness, reduced productivity, and increased poverty risk. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is caused by a parasitic worm (Onchocerca volvulus), but it is transmitted through repeated bites of infected blackflies of the Simulium species, not tsetse flies (which transmit African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness). Niger recently became the first country in the African Region to eliminate the disease. Statement 2 is correct. Onchocerciasis, or River Blindness, is common throughout sub-Saharan Africa (and parts of South America). The name “river blindness” comes from the fact that the vector flies breed near fast-flowing rivers and streams in tropical, remote agricultural areas. Key Features: Caused by chronic microfilarial infection producing intense inflammation. Leads to severe itching, disfiguring skin changes (“leopard skin”), and progressive eye damage. Adult worms live 10–15 years, making long-term treatment essential. Community-level morbidity includes blindness, reduced productivity, and increased poverty risk.

#### 5. Question

In the context of eliminating neglected tropical diseases, consider the following statements about Onchocerciasis (River Blindness):

• The disease is caused by a parasitic worm and is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected tsetse flies.

• It is predominantly found in fast-flowing rivers and streams in sub-Saharan Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is caused by a parasitic worm (Onchocerca volvulus), but it is transmitted through repeated bites of infected blackflies of the Simulium species, not tsetse flies (which transmit African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness). Niger recently became the first country in the African Region to eliminate the disease.

Statement 2 is correct. Onchocerciasis, or River Blindness, is common throughout sub-Saharan Africa (and parts of South America). The name “river blindness” comes from the fact that the vector flies breed near fast-flowing rivers and streams in tropical, remote agricultural areas.

Key Features:

• Caused by chronic microfilarial infection producing intense inflammation. Leads to severe itching, disfiguring skin changes (“leopard skin”), and progressive eye damage. Adult worms live 10–15 years, making long-term treatment essential. Community-level morbidity includes blindness, reduced productivity, and increased poverty risk.

• Caused by chronic microfilarial infection producing intense inflammation.

• Leads to severe itching, disfiguring skin changes (“leopard skin”), and progressive eye damage.

• Adult worms live 10–15 years, making long-term treatment essential.

• Community-level morbidity includes blindness, reduced productivity, and increased poverty risk.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Key Features:

• Caused by chronic microfilarial infection producing intense inflammation.

• Leads to severe itching, disfiguring skin changes (“leopard skin”), and progressive eye damage.

• Adult worms live 10–15 years, making long-term treatment essential.

• Community-level morbidity includes blindness, reduced productivity, and increased poverty risk.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following events (List I) with its resulting institutional outcome (List II): List I (Event) List II (Institutional Outcome) A. 1972 Stockholm Conference 1. Decision to transform the UNEP Governing Council into UNEA. B. 2012 Rio+20 Conference 2. Creation of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). C. 2014 UNEA-1 Session 3. First high-level, universal political body session on the environment. Which of the following combinations is correctly matched? (a) A-1, B-2, C-3 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3 (c) A-3, B-2, C-1 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1 Correct Solution: B Explanation A-2 (1972 Stockholm Conference – Creation of UNEP): The 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) was the first major international meeting on environmental issues. Its primary institutional outcome was the establishment of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya. B-1 (2012 Rio+20 Conference – Decision to transform UNEP Governing Council into UNEA): The 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) led to the decision to strengthen and upgrade UNEP by transforming its Governing Council into the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA). This was done to elevate the global political status of environmental issues. C-3 (2014 UNEA-1 Session – First high-level, universal political body session on the environment): Following the decision at Rio+20, the first session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-1) took place in 2014. As UNEA includes all 193 UN member states, it became the first high-level, universal political body on the environment, providing a parliament for the planet. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation A-2 (1972 Stockholm Conference – Creation of UNEP): The 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) was the first major international meeting on environmental issues. Its primary institutional outcome was the establishment of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya. B-1 (2012 Rio+20 Conference – Decision to transform UNEP Governing Council into UNEA): The 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) led to the decision to strengthen and upgrade UNEP by transforming its Governing Council into the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA). This was done to elevate the global political status of environmental issues. C-3 (2014 UNEA-1 Session – First high-level, universal political body session on the environment): Following the decision at Rio+20, the first session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-1) took place in 2014. As UNEA includes all 193 UN member states, it became the first high-level, universal political body on the environment, providing a parliament for the planet.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following events (List I) with its resulting institutional outcome (List II):

List I (Event) | List II (Institutional Outcome)

A. 1972 Stockholm Conference | 1. Decision to transform the UNEP Governing Council into UNEA.

B. 2012 Rio+20 Conference | 2. Creation of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).

C. 2014 UNEA-1 Session | 3. First high-level, universal political body session on the environment.

Which of the following combinations is correctly matched?

• (a) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (b) A-2, B-1, C-3

• (c) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (d) A-2, B-3, C-1

Solution: B

Explanation

• A-2 (1972 Stockholm Conference – Creation of UNEP): The 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) was the first major international meeting on environmental issues. Its primary institutional outcome was the establishment of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

• B-1 (2012 Rio+20 Conference – Decision to transform UNEP Governing Council into UNEA): The 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) led to the decision to strengthen and upgrade UNEP by transforming its Governing Council into the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA). This was done to elevate the global political status of environmental issues.

• C-3 (2014 UNEA-1 Session – First high-level, universal political body session on the environment): Following the decision at Rio+20, the first session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-1) took place in 2014. As UNEA includes all 193 UN member states, it became the first high-level, universal political body on the environment, providing a parliament for the planet.

Solution: B

Explanation

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following elements inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the ICH of Humanity from India: Yoga Navroz Traditional Brass and Copper Craft of Utensil Making of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) None Correct Solution: C Explanation: Yoga (inscribed 2016). Represents the ancient Indian practice of physical, mental, and spiritual self-improvement. Navroz (inscribed 2016, shared with 11 other countries). The Iranian/Persian New Year celebrated by communities like Parsis and Shia Muslims worldwide. It is a transnational inscription that includes India. Traditional Brass and Copper Craft of Utensil Making of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru (inscribed 2014). This unique craft from Punjab represents the traditional method of making utilitarian and ritualistic utensils. Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (inscribed 2010). The Dance (Performed by Women) – Serpent Movements: The dance movements are fluid, circular, and highly energetic, intended to replicate the sinuous movements of a snake. The dancers often spin rapidly and flex their bodies acrobatically. The Music (Played by Men) – Oral Tradition: The songs and music are passed down orally from generation to generation; there are no written texts or training manuals. The lyrics are often composed spontaneously (*impromptu*) during the performance and narrate mythological tales and folklore. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Yoga (inscribed 2016). Represents the ancient Indian practice of physical, mental, and spiritual self-improvement. Navroz (inscribed 2016, shared with 11 other countries). The Iranian/Persian New Year celebrated by communities like Parsis and Shia Muslims worldwide. It is a transnational inscription that includes India. Traditional Brass and Copper Craft of Utensil Making of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru (inscribed 2014). This unique craft from Punjab represents the traditional method of making utilitarian and ritualistic utensils. Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (inscribed 2010). The Dance (Performed by Women) – Serpent Movements: The dance movements are fluid, circular, and highly energetic, intended to replicate the sinuous movements of a snake. The dancers often spin rapidly and flex their bodies acrobatically. The Music (Played by Men) – Oral Tradition: The songs and music are passed down orally from generation to generation; there are no written texts or training manuals. The lyrics are often composed spontaneously (*impromptu*) during the performance and narrate mythological tales and folklore.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following elements inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the ICH of Humanity from India:

• Traditional Brass and Copper Craft of Utensil Making of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru

• Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Yoga (inscribed 2016). Represents the ancient Indian practice of physical, mental, and spiritual self-improvement.

• Navroz (inscribed 2016, shared with 11 other countries). The Iranian/Persian New Year celebrated by communities like Parsis and Shia Muslims worldwide. It is a transnational inscription that includes India.

• Traditional Brass and Copper Craft of Utensil Making of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru (inscribed 2014). This unique craft from Punjab represents the traditional method of making utilitarian and ritualistic utensils.

• Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (inscribed 2010).

The Dance (Performed by Women) – Serpent Movements: The dance movements are fluid, circular, and highly energetic, intended to replicate the sinuous movements of a snake. The dancers often spin rapidly and flex their bodies acrobatically.

The Music (Played by Men) – Oral Tradition: The songs and music are passed down orally from generation to generation; there are no written texts or training manuals. The lyrics are often composed spontaneously (*impromptu*) during the performance and narrate mythological tales and folklore.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Yoga (inscribed 2016). Represents the ancient Indian practice of physical, mental, and spiritual self-improvement.

• Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (inscribed 2010).

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in which one of the following Indian States? (a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Telangana (d) Chhattisgarh Correct Solution: C Explanation: The Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected forest area located in the Mulugu district of Telangana. It is situated near the Godavari River and is known for its dense deciduous forests and diverse wildlife, including Tigers, Leopards, and various deer species. History: Established: 30 January 1952 (one of the earliest sanctuaries in the state) Notified: 7 July 1999 under wildlife protection rules The region has evidence of ancient human dwellings, stone-age remains, and sites like Rakshasa Gullu. Hosts Asia’s largest tribal congregation, Medaram Jatara, celebrated every two years at Tadvai within the sanctuary. Landscape & Ecology: Located in Deccan dry deciduous forest zone. Dense forest patches, riverine tracks, and undulating terrain support high wildlife diversity. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected forest area located in the Mulugu district of Telangana. It is situated near the Godavari River and is known for its dense deciduous forests and diverse wildlife, including Tigers, Leopards, and various deer species. History: Established: 30 January 1952 (one of the earliest sanctuaries in the state) Notified: 7 July 1999 under wildlife protection rules The region has evidence of ancient human dwellings, stone-age remains, and sites like Rakshasa Gullu. Hosts Asia’s largest tribal congregation, Medaram Jatara, celebrated every two years at Tadvai within the sanctuary. Landscape & Ecology: Located in Deccan dry deciduous forest zone. Dense forest patches, riverine tracks, and undulating terrain support high wildlife diversity.

#### 8. Question

The Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in which one of the following Indian States?

• (a) Odisha

• (b) Andhra Pradesh

• (c) Telangana

• (d) Chhattisgarh

Solution: C

Explanation:

The Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected forest area located in the Mulugu district of Telangana. It is situated near the Godavari River and is known for its dense deciduous forests and diverse wildlife, including Tigers, Leopards, and various deer species.

History:

Established: 30 January 1952 (one of the earliest sanctuaries in the state)

Notified: 7 July 1999 under wildlife protection rules

The region has evidence of ancient human dwellings, stone-age remains, and sites like Rakshasa Gullu.

Hosts Asia’s largest tribal congregation, Medaram Jatara, celebrated every two years at Tadvai within the sanctuary.

Landscape & Ecology:

Located in Deccan dry deciduous forest zone.

Dense forest patches, riverine tracks, and undulating terrain support high wildlife diversity.

Solution: C

Explanation:

History:

Established: 30 January 1952 (one of the earliest sanctuaries in the state)

Notified: 7 July 1999 under wildlife protection rules

The region has evidence of ancient human dwellings, stone-age remains, and sites like Rakshasa Gullu.

Hosts Asia’s largest tribal congregation, Medaram Jatara, celebrated every two years at Tadvai within the sanctuary.

Landscape & Ecology:

Located in Deccan dry deciduous forest zone.

Dense forest patches, riverine tracks, and undulating terrain support high wildlife diversity.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to Dadabhai Naoroji, consider the following statements: He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons. He authored the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’, where he put forward the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory. He served as the President of the Indian National Congress (INC) only once during his political career. He was one of the founding members of the East India Association in London. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, the “Grand Old Man of India,” was the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons in 1892. Statement 2 is correct: He pioneered the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory and detailed it in his seminal work, *Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. This book, published in 1901, systematically analyzed the mechanism of the British economic exploitation of India and detailed the ‘Drain of Wealth’—the unilateral transfer of resources from India to Britain without corresponding economic returns. This theory was pivotal in the early nationalist movement. Statement 3 is incorrect: Dadabhai Naoroji served as the President of the Indian National Congress three times: at the Calcutta Session (1886), the Lahore Session (1893), and the Calcutta Session (1906). The 1906 session was particularly significant as the term ‘Swaraj’ was adopted as the goal. Statement 4 is correct: He founded the East India Association in 1866 in London. This organization replaced the defunct London Indian Society and served as a platform to present the Indian perspective on various issues to the British public and politicians. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, the “Grand Old Man of India,” was the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons in 1892. Statement 2 is correct: He pioneered the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory and detailed it in his seminal work, Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. This book, published in 1901, systematically analyzed the mechanism of the British economic exploitation of India and detailed the ‘Drain of Wealth’—the unilateral transfer of resources from India to Britain without corresponding economic returns. This theory was pivotal in the early nationalist movement. Statement 3 is incorrect: Dadabhai Naoroji served as the President of the Indian National Congress three times: at the Calcutta Session (1886), the Lahore Session (1893), and the Calcutta Session (1906). The 1906 session was particularly significant as the term ‘Swaraj’ was adopted as the goal. Statement 4 is correct: He founded the East India Association in 1866* in London. This organization replaced the defunct London Indian Society and served as a platform to present the Indian perspective on various issues to the British public and politicians.

#### 9. Question

With reference to Dadabhai Naoroji, consider the following statements:

• He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons.

• He authored the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’, where he put forward the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory.

• He served as the President of the Indian National Congress (INC) only once during his political career.

• He was one of the founding members of the East India Association in London.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, the “Grand Old Man of India,” was the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons in 1892.

Statement 2 is correct: He pioneered the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory and detailed it in his seminal work, *Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. This book, published in 1901, systematically analyzed the mechanism of the British economic exploitation of India and detailed the ‘Drain of Wealth’*—the unilateral transfer of resources from India to Britain without corresponding economic returns. This theory was pivotal in the early nationalist movement.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Dadabhai Naoroji served as the President of the Indian National Congress three times: at the Calcutta Session (1886), the Lahore Session (1893), and the Calcutta Session (1906). The 1906 session was particularly significant as the term ‘Swaraj’ was adopted as the goal.

Statement 4 is correct: He founded the East India Association in 1866 in London. This organization replaced the defunct London Indian Society and served as a platform to present the Indian perspective on various issues to the British public and politicians.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, the “Grand Old Man of India,” was the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons in 1892.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In the context of student mental health and academic pressures in India, consider the following statements: Statement-I: Punitive classroom culture, which includes public shaming and rigid comparison, erodes students’ sense of dignity and belonging. Statement-II: The National Medical Commission (NMC) has mandated that all schools must appoint full-time counsellors for every 100 students to address mental health gaps. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Explanation: Context: Student suicides have surged across India, with the recent death of 16-year-old Shourya Patil in Delhi highlighting systemic failures in school responses to bullying and distress. NCRB data shows a 65% rise in student suicides over a decade, exposing deep institutional gaps in mental-health protection. Statement-I is correct: Punitive measures, public shaming, and excessive comparisons create a toxic and high-stress learning environment. They severely damage a student’s self-esteem, generate fear of failure, and lead to social isolation, thereby eroding their sense of dignity and belonging—all key factors linked to poor mental health and academic anxiety. Statement-II is incorrect. The NMC regulates medical education, not school education. There is no universal legal mandate in India requiring full-time counsellors in schools. The regulation of counsellors in general schools falls under bodies like the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) or respective state boards, which have often issued recommendations, but not this specific, universal, and strictly enforced 1:100 ratio. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Context: Student suicides have surged across India, with the recent death of 16-year-old Shourya Patil in Delhi highlighting systemic failures in school responses to bullying and distress. NCRB data shows a 65% rise in student suicides over a decade, exposing deep institutional gaps in mental-health protection. Statement-I is correct: Punitive measures, public shaming, and excessive comparisons create a toxic and high-stress learning environment. They severely damage a student’s self-esteem, generate fear of failure, and lead to social isolation, thereby eroding their sense of dignity and belonging—all key factors linked to poor mental health and academic anxiety. Statement-II is incorrect. The NMC regulates medical education, not school education. There is no universal legal mandate in India requiring full-time counsellors in schools. The regulation of counsellors in general schools falls under bodies like the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) or respective state boards, which have often issued recommendations, but not this specific, universal, and strictly enforced 1:100 ratio.

#### 10. Question

In the context of student mental health and academic pressures in India, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Punitive classroom culture, which includes public shaming and rigid comparison, erodes students’ sense of dignity and belonging.

Statement-II: The National Medical Commission (NMC) has mandated that all schools must appoint full-time counsellors for every 100 students to address mental health gaps.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Explanation:

Context: Student suicides have surged across India, with the recent death of 16-year-old Shourya Patil in Delhi highlighting systemic failures in school responses to bullying and distress.

• NCRB data shows a 65% rise in student suicides over a decade, exposing deep institutional gaps in mental-health protection.

Statement-I is correct: Punitive measures, public shaming, and excessive comparisons create a toxic and high-stress learning environment. They severely damage a student’s self-esteem, generate fear of failure, and lead to social isolation, thereby eroding their sense of dignity and belonging—all key factors linked to poor mental health and academic anxiety.

Statement-II is incorrect. The NMC regulates medical education, not school education. There is no universal legal mandate in India requiring full-time counsellors in schools. The regulation of counsellors in general schools falls under bodies like the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) or respective state boards, which have often issued recommendations, but not this specific, universal, and strictly enforced 1:100 ratio.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Context: Student suicides have surged across India, with the recent death of 16-year-old Shourya Patil in Delhi highlighting systemic failures in school responses to bullying and distress.

• NCRB data shows a 65% rise in student suicides over a decade, exposing deep institutional gaps in mental-health protection.

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